NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) - Full-Length Test

/100

NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) – Full-Length Test

1 / 100

Which statement about Speculation is incorrect?

2 / 100

What factors affect the future value of an investment?

3 / 100

If there is uncertainty regarding future payments, investors would demand a return higher than the nominal required rate. What is this additional component called?

4 / 100

What type of investment represents ownership in a company, allowing holders to participate in profits and vote on company affairs?

5 / 100

Liquidity Risk refers to _________?

a. The ease with which one can convert an asset into Cash

b. The possibility of realising almost the entire economic worth of an asset.

 

6 / 100

What is the term for when a listed company issues shares to a select group of persons, which is neither a rights nor a public issue?

7 / 100

What is essential for the public issue of a debt security?

8 / 100

What is the term for an intermediary committing to purchase the unsubscribed portion of an issue during the initial stages of an IPO?

9 / 100

What is the function of the secondary markets?

10 / 100

Under relative valuation techniques, the value of a stock is estimated based on its current price relative to significant valuation variables, such as _______________.

11 / 100

Which ratio compares the price of the stock to the earnings it generates?

12 / 100

What happens to a trade that is squared-off during the day?

13 / 100

Which industries rise and fall closely with general economic activity compared to others?

14 / 100

Government securities carry practically no risk of:

15 / 100

______________ risk arises from the fact that income flows received from an investment at the coupon rate may not be able to earn the same interest.

16 / 100

In a Nifty 50 futures contract, the underlying is:

17 / 100

What defines the settlement price used to determine daily mark-to-market margins for a futures contract?

18 / 100

How is counterparty risk in a futures contract primarily mitigated?

19 / 100

What is the term for the feature that allows issuing firms to retire bonds before maturity by paying a specified price?

20 / 100

What characteristic typically describes the putability (put option) feature of a bond?

21 / 100

Between which types of prices can arbitrage opportunities exist?

22 / 100

What financial entity pools the savings of multiple investors who have a common financial objective?

23 / 100

Which of the following are benefits of investing through mutual funds?

24 / 100

The types of securities purchased by a fund depend on _____________.

25 / 100

Which type of scheme features continuous sale and purchase of units at NAV or NAV-related prices, allows investors to enter and exit at any time, and does not have a specific time frame?

26 / 100

The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations were introduced in the year:

27 / 100

As per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020, the net worth requirement to be registered as a Portfolio Management Services (PMS) provider is:

28 / 100

What is a broad outline specifying the types of securities and permissible instruments for investment by a portfolio manager, tailored to specific client and securities factors?

29 / 100

The following is the requirement for granting the certificate of registration under Portfolio Managers Regulations 2020:

30 / 100

________________ portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the directions of the client.

31 / 100

The minimum investment required for PMS investment is:

32 / 100

The following entity is eligible to invest into PMS:

33 / 100

The following entities can invest in PMS:

34 / 100

Asset allocation is _____________.

35 / 100

____________ phase is the stage when investors in their early-to-middle earning years attempt to accumulate assets to satisfy near-term needs, e.g., children’s education or down payment on a home.

36 / 100

Which of the following is a step in the portfolio management process?

37 / 100

Sharpe’s performance measure divides the portfolio’s risk premium by the _________.

38 / 100

Commission received from business forms part of income from ______.

39 / 100

Record of transactions to be maintained under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act includes Cash transactions of the value of more than ________.

40 / 100

What is the primary goal of conducting risk profiling for PMS clients?

41 / 100

What are the characteristics of the stocks that Momentum factor funds prioritize for investment?

42 / 100

The ‘Code of Conduct’ for portfolio managers includes which of these points?

43 / 100

What is the main advantage of using Time Weighted Rate of Return (TWRR) over other return measures?

44 / 100

Which bonds refer to the debt securities issued by a state to finance its capital expenditure?

45 / 100

The securities can be issued in the primary market through ______.

46 / 100

What is the difference between the yield on a government security and a corporate security for the same maturity?

47 / 100

The stock market or secondary market ensures _______.

48 / 100

What does the credit spread represent?

49 / 100

The holders of which of these will be paid last in case of a company’s default?

50 / 100

Which of them is true concerning futures?

51 / 100

The interest rate paid on the bond is referred to as _______ payment.

52 / 100

A contract gives the bondholder the right to redeem the bond at a pre-fixed date before maturity. The option embedded in this contract is known as ____________.

53 / 100

Bond prices behave ________ with interest rates.

54 / 100

In which situation are the Callable Bonds likely to be “Called”?

55 / 100

In India, ______ day count convention is followed in the Money Market.

56 / 100

____ is a contract that gives the holder the right to purchase or sell the underlying security at a specified price within a specified period.

57 / 100

Which contracts are bilateral agreements in which a party can purchase or sell assets at a certain price on a specific future date?

58 / 100

In an Options contract, the counterparty with an obligation to execute the option is __________.

59 / 100

A deemed resident is always treated as a non-ordinarily resident.

60 / 100

Which one of these is a person as per the Income-tax Act, 1961?

61 / 100

An individual is treated as a resident in India if he stays in India for _______ or more in 4 years preceding the previous year.

62 / 100

An Indian citizen, who is not a resident under Section 6(1), shall be deemed to be resident in India during the previous year if his Indian income during that year exceeds _______ and he is not liable to pay tax in any other country.

63 / 100

Companies can issue securities by way of __________.

64 / 100

The losses can be carried forward for ______ only in case of speculative business losses.

65 / 100

The modified duration is used to measure _______.

66 / 100

The losses can be carried forward for ______ only in case of non-speculative business losses.

67 / 100

Which of the following is correct for Modified Duration?

68 / 100

Which fee is payable to registrars and transfer agents for effecting the transfer of securities and bonds?

69 / 100

What is the most meaningful way to reduce risk in stocks?

70 / 100

How can cross-sectional risk diversification be achieved in equity investment?

71 / 100

Why is “time in the market” suggested for equity investment rather than “timing the market”?

72 / 100

Which cost is part of the acquisition cost/sale realization and includes charges such as STT and stamp duty?

73 / 100

Which charges are payable for outsourced professional services like fund accounting, taxation, and auditing?

74 / 100

Which charges are associated with day-to-day operations and include expenses like service tax, telephone expenses, and statutory levies?

75 / 100

What term is used to describe risks that are specific to a particular sector or industry?

76 / 100

In which types of businesses is the Asset-Based valuation methodology commonly used?

77 / 100

According to the Asset-Based valuation methodology, what is the value of equity?

78 / 100

In what way does the Asset-Based valuation methodology fall short?

79 / 100

What distinguishes zero coupon bonds from other bonds?

80 / 100

What determines the market price of a bond?

81 / 100

What is a significant limitation of the Asset-Based valuation approach mentioned in the passage?

82 / 100

Why is it called “Yield to Call” in bonds with an embedded call feature?

83 / 100

What assumption does Yield-to-maturity computation implicitly make regarding coupon cash flows?

84 / 100

What is the primary objective of arbitrageurs?

85 / 100

What does “Call Price” refer to in the context of bonds with a call feature?

86 / 100

How does an increase in interest rates affect the value of a bond, according to the passage?

87 / 100

Identify the entity which is currently NOT a KYC Registration Agency?

88 / 100

Debt funds have _______ .

89 / 100

What is Reinvestment Risk, as described in the passage?

90 / 100

What does the law of one price state, as mentioned in the passage?

91 / 100

Why is the Free Cash Flow to Equity – FCFE model particularly relevant when valuing highly leveraged businesses?

92 / 100

What is the rationale behind requiring portfolio managers to hold client funds in a scheduled commercial bank?

93 / 100

What is the minimum holding period for listed equity investments in a PMS to be considered long-term capital assets under Indian Income Tax law?

94 / 100

How extensive should enhanced due diligence be for high-risk clients, in compliance with the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)?

95 / 100

What is the significance of distinguishing between high and low priority investment goals?

96 / 100

Which kinds of beneficial interests are required to be disclosed by portfolio managers to their clients?

97 / 100

In which way is Portfolio Management Services (PMS) different from mutual funds?

98 / 100

What are the essential responsibilities of portfolio managers under the Investor Charter?

99 / 100

What is one of the primary benefits of asset allocation for a portfolio?

100 / 100

Who appoints a Compliance Officer ?

Your score is

0%

Exit

Scroll to Top