NISM Series XIX-C: Alternative Investment Fund Managers Cert. -Full-Length Test/100 NISM Series XIX-C: Alternative Investment Fund Managers Cert. – Full-Length Test 1 / 100Securities traded on a stock exchange or other regulated markets are to be valued at the closing price quoted on the relevant exchange or market, as on the relevant Valuation Day. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Securities traded on a stock exchange or other regulated markets are valued at the closing price quoted on the relevant exchange or market on the relevant Valuation Day, as per standard valuation practices.2 / 100________ Funds are recommended to comply with the Global Investment Performance Standards, to ensure full disclosures and fair performance presentation which helps to advance fair competitive practices within the industry and meet the demands of prospective clients and investors. a) Investment Management Firms b) Alternative Investment c) Global Investment d) Gross Asset Value Explanation:Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are recommended to comply with the Global Investment Performance Standards (GIPS) to ensure transparency, fair performance presentation, and meet the demands of investors, promoting fair competitive practices in the industry.3 / 100In Category III AIF Distributors model code of conduct Consider _________, risk profiling and suitability to their financial needs while marketing Category III AIFs and advising on the same. a) Investee premiums b) Investor's interest c) Directors premiums d) Distributors risk Explanation:In the Category III AIF Distributors’ model code of conduct, distributors are expected to consider the investor’s interest, risk profiling, and suitability to their financial needs when marketing and advising on Category III AIFs. This ensures that investors are provided with advice that aligns with their financial goals and risk tolerance.4 / 100________ will be calculated as the sum of the market value of the long and short positions of all securities / contracts held by the fund. a) Debt security b) Total exposure c) Beneficial Interest d) Unlisted securities Explanation:Total exposure refers to the sum of the market value of the long and short positions of all securities or contracts held by the fund. It gives a comprehensive view of the total risk and potential value of the fund’s positions.5 / 100__________ commitment shall be in the form of investment in the scheme of the fund and shall not be through the waiver of management fees. a) Sponsor commitment b) Drawdown c) Capital commitment d) Commercial commitment Explanation:Sponsor commitment refers to the investment made by the sponsor in the scheme of the fund, which must be in the form of actual capital invested, not through waivers of management fees. This ensures that the sponsor has a financial stake in the fund’s performance.6 / 100The United Nations-backed __________ is a global network of investors that attempts to integrate ESG practices into investment practices. a) Principles of Drawdown period b) Principles for Responsible Investment c) Principles of the commitment period d) Principles for Required Investments Explanation:The Principles for Responsible Investment (PRI) is a United Nations-backed global network of investors that aims to incorporate Environmental, Social, and Governance (ESG) factors into investment decision-making processes, promoting responsible investing practices.7 / 100Performance Risk covers the ________ risk factors. a) Potential Loss of the Investment b) Dependence on the Investment Manager c) Incentive Fee d) All the above Explanation:Performance risk encompasses various factors that can impact the overall return on the investment. This includes the potential loss of investment, reliance on the investment manager for decision-making, and the incentive fee structure that can affect the net returns to the investors. All these factors contribute to the risk associated with the performance of the fund.8 / 100A Category III AIF can invest up to _____ of its investable funds in one single investee company. a) 20 percent b) 10 percent c) 25 percent d) 5 percent Explanation:As per the SEBI (AIF) Regulations, a Category III AIF is permitted to invest a maximum of 10 percent of its investable funds in any one single investee company, either directly or through units of other AIFs.9 / 100The Investment Manager comes with ________ of experience dealing in equities, fixed-income securities, and derivatives and hence is able to take an investment call on behalf of their investors. a) minimum 5 years b) maximum 5 years c) minimum 2 years d) maximum 2 years Explanation:The Investment Manager of a Category III AIF must have at least 5 years of experience in dealing with equities, fixed-income securities, and derivatives. This experience is crucial for making informed investment decisions on behalf of the investors.10 / 100___________ made by AIFs in India, are considered foreign investments, if neither the Sponsor nor the Manager nor the Investment Manager is Indian owned and controlled. a) Private Equity Fund b) Angel Fund c) Investments d) Hedge Fund Explanation:Investments made by Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) in India are considered foreign investment if neither the Sponsor, Manager, nor the Investment Manager is Indian owned and controlled. This is important for determining the regulatory framework under which the fund operates and its compliance with foreign investment laws.11 / 100In case of accreditation of Individual investors, HUFs and sole proprietorships, the value of the primary residence of the Individual, Karta of the HUF, or the Sole Proprietor, as the case may be, shall not be considered for calculation of net worth. State Whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:In the case of accreditation of individual investors, Hindu undivided families (HUFs), and sole proprietorships, the value of the primary residence is not considered when calculating net worth. This ensures that only investable assets and financial resources are taken into account for accreditation purposes.12 / 100______ means an AIF that invests primarily in unlisted securities or partnership interest or listed debt or securitized debt instruments of investee companies or special purpose vehicles engaged in or formed for the purpose of operating, developing or holding infrastructure projects. a) Hedge Fund b) Social Venture Fund c) Infrastructure Fund d) Small and Medium Enterprise Fund Explanation:An Infrastructure Fund primarily invests in unlisted securities, partnership interests, listed debt, or securitized debt instruments of companies or special purpose vehicles (SPVs) involved in operating, developing, or holding infrastructure projects. These funds are targeted at supporting infrastructure development and related activities.13 / 100Incentive Fee is charged as a percentage of the incremental return earned by the Category III AIF, generally between ___________. a) 0 and 5 percent b) 0 and 10 percent c) 0 and 15 percent d) 0 and 20 percent Explanation:The Incentive Fee charged by Category III AIFs is typically a percentage of the incremental return earned by the fund, and it generally ranges between 0% and 20%. This fee structure is designed to incentivize the fund manager to deliver strong performance for the investors.14 / 100The Leverage Strategy of the fund/scheme, with a detailed description of the types of derivative exposures, target markets, and inherent risks of such exposures is a __________ Strategy of the Category III AIF/Fund scheme. a) Proposed Investment b) Historical Performance c) Key terms d) Fund Sponsor Explanation:The Leverage Strategy of the fund, which includes a detailed description of derivative exposures, target markets, and inherent risks, is part of the Proposed Investment strategy of the Category III AIF/Fund scheme. This section outlines the intended investment approach and the associated risks to provide clarity for investors.15 / 100________ Strategy focuses on delivering absolute returns, by identifying overpriced and underpriced stocks, relative to the investment manager’s fair valuation. a) Global-Macro Strategy b) Long-Short Equity c) Market-Neutral Strategy d) Long-only Equity Explanation:The Long-Short Equity strategy focuses on delivering absolute returns by taking long positions in undervalued (underpriced) stocks and short positions in overvalued (overpriced) stocks. This strategy is based on the investment manager’s fair valuation of stocks, aiming to profit from price discrepancies while managing market exposure.16 / 100Category III AIFs in India have been investing the funds faster, in order to generate alpha by employing diverse trading strategies. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:Category III AIFs (Alternative Investment Funds) in India typically aim to generate alpha (excess returns above the market average) by employing diverse trading strategies, including long-short equity, derivatives, arbitrage, and other active management techniques. As a result, they tend to deploy funds more quickly in the market to capitalize on opportunities.17 / 100GST is also levied on the Trusteeship Fees, payable to the Trustee of the Category III AIF, at the rate of _________. a) 14% b) 12% c) 18% d) 22% Explanation:Goods and Services Tax (GST) is levied at the standard rate of 18% on Trusteeship Fees payable to the Trustee of the Category III AIF, as per the applicable tax regulations in India.18 / 100_________ is computed using a common method known as Capital Asset Pricing Model. a) Alpha b) Expected Return c) Risk-free Rate of Return d) Beta Explanation:The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) is used to calculate the Expected Return of an asset based on its risk relative to the market.The formula for Expected Return using CAPM is:Expected Return=Risk-Free Rate+β×(Market Return−Risk-Free Rate)Why Not Other Options?Alpha – Alpha measures excess returns over the expected return from CAPM, but CAPM does not compute Alpha directly.Risk-Free Rate of Return – The risk-free rate is an input in CAPM, but CAPM does not calculate it.Beta – Beta represents systematic risk relative to the market, but it is an input in CAPM, not the computed value.19 / 100Employees who do not respect the Distributor’s Confidentiality Policy should be held liable for disciplinary action. The employees should _________. a) Secure confidential information, with passwords and encryptions b) Replicate confidential documents and files and store them on personal storage devices c) Use confidential information for any personal benefit or profit d) All the above Explanation:Employees must uphold the Distributor’s Confidentiality Policy by securing confidential information using appropriate measures like passwords and encryption. Any misuse, replication, or unauthorized use of such information is strictly prohibited and can lead to disciplinary action.20 / 100__________ is a serious economic offense as it undermines the integrity of the market participants, distorts economic performance, misallocates capital flows, evades taxes and finances criminal and terrorist activities. a) Cash transactions b) Money laundering c) Reporting entities d) Multi-cap mutual fund Explanation:Money laundering is a grave economic offense that compromises market integrity, distorts economic systems, misallocates resources, evades taxation, and can fund criminal or terrorist activities, posing severe threats to financial and national security.21 / 100________ refers to the total funds to be contributed by investors for subscription to the Category III AIF, during the life of the fund. a) Sponsor commitment b) Drawdown c) Capital commitment d) Commercial commitment Explanation:Capital commitment refers to the total amount that investors agree to contribute to the fund over its lifecycle for their subscription to the Category III AIF. This amount is pledged by investors but is drawn down in installments as per the fund’s requirements.22 / 100Category III AIF indulges in any manipulative, fraudulent or deceptive practices or spreads rumors with a view to make personal gain. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Category III AIFs are strictly prohibited from engaging in manipulative, fraudulent, or deceptive practices, or spreading rumors for personal or financial gain. They are required to adhere to ethical and regulatory standards to ensure market integrity and protect investor interests.23 / 100The distributors ensure that they are not in violation of SEBI Regulations. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Distributors are required to comply with SEBI regulations and operate within the legal framework. Ensuring compliance helps maintain transparency, investor trust, and adherence to ethical practices in the distribution of financial products, including Category III AIFs.24 / 100Which term describes the fund’s aspirations, investment objectives, and the vision of the Investment Manager? a) AIF Fees b) First close c) Final close d) Soft cap Explanation:Soft Cap refers to the fund’s target size that is descriptive of its aspirations, investment objectives, and vision of the Investment Manager. It represents a flexible fundraising goal and is different from a hard cap, which is a strict limit on fund size.Why Not Other Options? AIF Fees: Refers to management and performance fees, not fund objectives. First Close: Refers to the initial round of capital commitment in an AIF. Final Close: Marks the completion of the fundraising period.25 / 100The __________ should have effective policies and controls in the organization, to minimize conflicts of interest that may jeopardize the independence and objectivity of research. a) Distributors b) Investment Manager c) Investor d) Investee Explanation:The Investment Manager is responsible for establishing effective policies and controls to minimize conflicts of interest, ensuring the independence and objectivity of research, and maintaining trust with investors.26 / 100The __________ Strategy focuses on delivering absolute returns for investors over the medium to long term, with a strong emphasis on capital preservation. a) Long-Short Equity b) Market-Neutral Strategy c) Global-Macro Strategy d) Long-only Equity Explanation:The Long-only Equity Strategy aims to deliver absolute returns over the medium to long term by investing solely in equities, prioritizing capital preservation and steady growth for investors.27 / 100_________ can permit assessment of such income in the hands of the Trustee, wherein the Trustee would be assessed as a representative assesses of the fund. a) Assessing Officer b) Indeterminate Trustor c) Determinate Settlor d) Settlor Explanation:The Assessing Officer can permit the assessment of income in the hands of the trustee, where the trustee is treated as a representative assessee for the fund. This allows the trustee to be responsible for reporting and paying taxes on behalf of the fund.28 / 100Investors will always prefer a ______ TVPI, as it measures the Total Value generated, whether by distributions made or the value of unrealized assets in the fund. a) zero b) high c) low d) equal Explanation:Investors will always prefer a high TVPI (Total Value to Paid-In) ratio, as it indicates the total value generated by the fund, including both distributions made to investors and the unrealized value of the assets still held by the fund. A higher TVPI signifies better performance and a greater return on investment.29 / 100A ___________ appointed for filing of PPM shall not be an associate of the AIF, its sponsor, manager or trustee. a) Investors b) Merchant banker c) Sponsor d) Partners Explanation:A merchant banker appointed for filing the Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) shall not be an associate of the AIF, its sponsor, manager, or trustee. This ensures that the merchant banker maintains independence and avoids any potential conflicts of interest while filing the PPM.30 / 100The ________ is the offer document made by the Category III AIF, both at Onshore Level and Offshore Level to attract capital commitments from potential investors. a) Investment Management Agreement b) Contribution Agreement c) Private Placement Memorandum d) Investor Side Letters Explanation:The Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) is the offer document used by Category III AIFs, both at the onshore and offshore levels, to attract capital commitments from potential investors. It outlines key details about the AIF, its investment strategy, risks, and other relevant information for investors.31 / 100_________ of the following Trust structures are eligible to pass-through income in the nature of ‘Capital Gains’, to its investors. a) Determinate Irrevocable Trust b) Determinate Revocable Trust c) Indeterminate Irrevocable Trust d) Indeterminate Revocable Trust Explanation:A Determinate Irrevocable Trust is eligible to pass-through income in the nature of ‘Capital Gains’ to its investors. In this structure, the beneficiaries are clearly identifiable, and the trust’s income is taxed at the investor level rather than at the trust level.32 / 100At the Fund constituent level disclose the potential conflict if the _________ is a group or associate entity of the Category III AIF, or sponsor/investment manager of the fund, or has one or more directors in common. a) Trustor b) Distributor c) Sponsor d) Trustee Explanation:At the fund constituent level, it is essential to disclose any potential conflict of interest if the Trustee is a group or associate entity of the Category III AIF, or sponsor/investment manager of the fund, or shares one or more directors in common. Transparency is crucial to avoid any undue influence or biases in the management and administration of the fund.33 / 100________ strategy, which aims at making investments, independent from the broad market movements. a) Absolute-return b) Reporting Return c) Benchmark Return d) Periodic Return Explanation:The absolute-return strategy aims to make investments that are independent of broad market movements, focusing on generating positive returns regardless of market conditions. This strategy does not rely on comparing performance against a benchmark or index, making it distinct from strategies that track market trends.34 / 100The total net assets of the fund represent the total value attributable to all classes of units and investors with the Category III AIF. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The Total Net Assets (TNA) of a Category III AIF represent the total value of all assets held by the fund, including the value attributable to all classes of units and investors within the fund. This includes both realized and unrealized assets.35 / 100Every Manager of a Category III AIF and key management personnel of the manager and fund shall __________. a) Ensure proper care and exercise due diligence and independent professional judgment in all its decisions b) Maintain integrity and the highest ethical and professional standards in all dealings c) Provide appropriate and well-considered inputs, which are not misleading, as required by the value to carry out appropriate valuation of the portfolio d) All the above Explanation:The Manager of a Category III AIF and key management personnel are required to ensure proper care, exercise due diligence, maintain integrity, adhere to the highest ethical standards, and provide accurate, well-considered inputs. These actions are crucial for effective management, accurate valuation, and maintaining trust in the fund’s operations.36 / 100__________ is difficult to predict whether any additional interim or permanent governmental steps may be taken and what effect such steps may have on the Fund’s investment strategies. a) Counterparty Risk b) Geo-Political Risk c) Funding Risk d) Interest Rate Risk Explanation:Geo-Political Risk refers to the uncertainty around the effects of political events or governmental actions in a particular region, which could impact the investment strategies of the fund. Such events are often unpredictable, and their impact can vary based on the situation.37 / 100RVPI can be represented as a summation of TVPI and DPI. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:RVPI (Residual Value to Paid In) is actually the ratio of the remaining value of the fund’s investments to the capital paid in by investors. It is calculated as: RVPI = Residual Value Paid-In Capital RVPI= Paid-In Capital Residual Value ? TVPI (Total Value to Paid-In) is the sum of DPI (Distributions to Paid-In) and RVPI: TVPI = DPI + RVPI TVPI=DPI+RVPI So, RVPI cannot be represented as the summation of TVPI and DPI. The statement is false.38 / 100_______ measures Systematic Risk which is the change in the returns earned by the fund portfolio, on account of a change in the returns on a broad-based index. a) Beta b) Alpha c) Mid-cap stocks d) Active Management Explanation:Beta measures the systematic risk of a portfolio relative to a broad market index. It indicates how much the fund’s returns are expected to change in response to changes in the returns of the market index. A beta of 1 implies the portfolio will move in line with the market, while a beta higher than 1 indicates more volatility than the market, and a beta less than 1 indicates less volatility.39 / 100The _________ is based on the premise that the risk premium generated by an investment manager of a Category III AIF should not be compared with the total risk, but with the risk which is not diversifiable. a) Sharpe Ratio b) Traynor Ratio c) Alpha d) Beta Explanation:The Traynor Ratio (also known as the Treynor Ratio) measures the return earned in excess of the risk-free rate per unit of systematic risk, as represented by beta. Unlike the Sharpe Ratio, which uses total risk (standard deviation), the Traynor Ratio only considers non-diversifiable risk, or systematic risk, making it a useful tool for evaluating the performance of an investment manager in relation to the market.40 / 100Delivery-based purchase and sale of equity shares, traded on a recognized stock exchange in India, are subject to STT at the rate of ________ on the transaction value of such purchase or sale. a) 1.30% b) 0.10% c) 0.30% d) 0.50% Explanation:In India, Securities Transaction Tax (STT) is levied on the delivery-based purchase and sale of equity shares traded on a recognized stock exchange. The rate of STT is 0.10% on the transaction value of the purchase or sale of such shares. This tax is applicable on both the buy and sell transactions.41 / 100As per SEBI regulations, what are the minimum investment requirements for a Category II Alternative Investment Fund (AIF)? a) Rs. 1 crore – Standard minimum commitment from all investors b) Rs. 10 lakh – Intended for employees/directors (incorrect figure) c) Rs. 25 lakh – Minimum commitment applicable only to employees or directors of the AIF manager d) 1 & 4 (depending on the investor type) Explanation:As per SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, the minimum investment requirement in a Category II AIF is:Rs. 1 crore – This is the standard minimum commitment required from most investors.Rs. 25 lakh – This lower threshold applies to employees or directors of the AIF or the fund manager, allowing them to invest at a reduced minimum.This helps ensure serious investor participation while providing flexibility to internal stakeholders.Thus, option 4 is correct as it covers both investor categories.42 / 100Category III AIF may take Leverage through investments in derivative contracts, provided ________. a) Prior consent of investors in the fund is taken b) Maximum Leverage should be2 times the Net Asset Value of the Fund c) Disclosures are made to investors and SEBI periodically d) All the above Explanation:Category III AIFs are allowed to take leverage through investments in derivative contracts, but they must adhere to specific regulations, including obtaining prior consent from investors, ensuring the leverage does not exceed two times the Net Asset Value of the fund, and providing periodic disclosures to both investors and SEBI.43 / 100_________ is disclosed to the investors at quarterly intervals for close-ended funds and at monthly intervals for open-ended funds. a) Asset value b) Net asset value c) Fund Corpus d) None of these Explanation:The Net Asset Value (NAV) is disclosed to the investors at quarterly intervals for close-ended funds and at monthly intervals for open-ended funds to provide transparency on the fund’s performance and current value.44 / 100Total income exceeding Rs.50 lakh but not exceeding Rs.1 crore, the Surcharge Rate is _________. a) 10% b) 15% c) 20% d) 25% Explanation:For total income exceeding ?50 lakh but not exceeding ?1 crore, the surcharge rate is 10% as per the Income Tax Act.45 / 100Distributors should abstain from providing incorrect or misleading information about their Organization and employees, officials, or sales agents to the _______. a) Investee b) Customers c) Distributors d) Investor Explanation:Distributors should ensure that they provide accurate and truthful information to investors and avoid any misleading or incorrect representations about their organization, employees, officials, or sales agents.46 / 100_________ measures the total amount distributed by the fund, per rupee of investment. a) RVPI b) DPI c) TVPI d) AUM Explanation:DPI (Distributions to Paid-In) measures the total amount distributed by the fund to investors, per rupee of the capital invested. It is a key performance indicator used to assess how much capital has been returned to investors relative to the amount of capital invested.47 / 100Hedge Funds take both long and short positions and use significant leverage at the fund level. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:Hedge funds typically take both long and short positions in their investment strategies and often use significant leverage at the fund level to amplify returns. This flexibility allows hedge funds to profit in both rising and falling markets.48 / 100If a Category III AIF deploys leverage, the Fund must ensure that _________. a) Maintains independent compliance function with suitable operational resources, infrastructure, checks, and controls. b) Provides full disclosures of present and potential conflicts of interest along with its resolution mechanisms to the investors and SEBI c) maintains records of all trades and transactions performed in the Fund and makes them available to SEBI, when required d) All the above Explanation:When a Category III AIF deploys leverage, it must maintain an independent compliance function, provide disclosures about conflicts of interest, and keep detailed records of all trades and transactions. These steps ensure that the fund operates transparently and adheres to regulatory requirements, safeguarding investor interests and maintaining accountability to SEBI.49 / 100Adequate internal controls should be implemented at the fund level to ensure compliance with the prudential norms and reporting any breach of leverage limits specified by SEBI, on a monthly basis if the fund is taking _________. a) potential b) dependence c) leverage d) operating Explanation:Adequate internal controls are essential at the fund level to ensure compliance with prudential norms, especially when the fund is taking leverage. Any breaches of the leverage limits set by SEBI should be reported on a monthly basis to ensure proper oversight and risk management.50 / 100GAAR shall be invoked in case tax avoidance is sufficiently addressed by the Limitation of Benefit Clause in a Treaty with other countries. State Whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) is designed to address tax avoidance schemes that are not covered by the Limitation of Benefit (LOB) clause in tax treaties. If a tax avoidance strategy is sufficiently addressed by the LOB clause, GAAR may not be invoked. However, if the LOB clause is not effective, GAAR can still be invoked to prevent abusive tax avoidance.51 / 100The NAV of a Category III AIF shall be disclosed to all investors on a quarterly basis, if the fund is structured as an open-ended Category III AIF. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:As per SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, a Category III AIF that is structured as an open-ended fund must disclose its Net Asset Value (NAV) to investors on a monthly basis, not quarterly.This is because Category III AIFs engage in high-frequency trading, short-selling, and hedging strategies, requiring frequent reporting for investor transparency.52 / 100In the context of Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs), what do paid-up units represent? a) The total amount committed by the investor, including future obligations b) The amount invested by the investor in the AIF or its scheme, out of the committed capital c) The total capital available with the fund d) The residual value of the fund’s net assets Explanation:In Alternative Investment Funds, paid-up units refer to the portion of committed capital that has already been invested by the investor in the fund or its scheme. It does not include uncalled capital (i.e., amounts yet to be drawn down by the fund).53 / 100The _______ of a Category III AIF is of particular relevance to distributors and is fundamental to marketing the right product to investors as well as explaining the potential return and risks therein. a) SWO b) PPM c) PF d) FF Explanation:The Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) of a Category III AIF is crucial for distributors as it provides detailed information about the fund, including investment strategy, risks, and potential returns, helping them market the product effectively to suitable investors.54 / 100___________ refers to the degree to which a distribution is more or less peaked than a normal distribution. a) Standard deviation b) Zero c) Skewness d) Kurtosis Explanation:Kurtosis measures the degree to which a distribution is more or less peaked compared to a normal distribution, indicating the presence of extreme values or tails in the data.55 / 100Managers shall frame the preferred investment approach for making investments. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:The manager of an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) is responsible for framing the preferred investment approach, ensuring alignment with the fund’s objectives and regulatory guidelines.56 / 100Under Section 2(42A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a short-term capital asset is a capital asset held by the assesses, for a period not more than __________ immediately preceding the date of transfer, in case of securities listed on a recognized stock exchange, a unit of an equity oriented fund, listed bonds and debentures, or a zero coupon bond. a) 24 months b) 6 months c) 12 months d) 18 months Explanation:Under Section 2(42A) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, a short-term capital asset is defined as one held for not more than 12 months immediately preceding the date of transfer, applicable to listed securities, equity-oriented mutual funds, listed bonds, and zero-coupon bonds.57 / 100A Directional Strategy is an the opposite of ________ Strategy, as the investment manager will not aim at having a Portfolio Beta of zero or close to zero. a) Market-Neutral b) Unidirectional c) Dedicated-Short d) Dedicated-Long Explanation:A Directional Strategy contrasts with a Market-Neutral Strategy because it does not seek to maintain a Portfolio Beta of zero or close to zero, instead taking positions that reflect market trends or directional views.58 / 100Nondiscretionary Trusts are administered as per the clauses of the trust deed and are not driven by the discretion of the trustee. State Whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:In a Nondiscretionary Trust, the trustee administers the trust strictly according to the clauses outlined in the trust deed, without exercising personal discretion over the trust’s management or investment decisions.59 / 100_________ is a measure used to quantify the downside risk in a Category III AIF. a) Value at return b) Value in reporting c) Value at Risk d) Value at period Explanation:Value at Risk (VaR) is a statistical measure used to quantify the potential downside risk of a portfolio in a Category III AIF, estimating the maximum possible loss over a specified time frame and confidence level.60 / 100The _________ computes the excess return earned by the fund over the risk-free rate, per unit of total risk taken as defined by its portfolio standard deviation. a) Traynor Ratio b) Sharpe Ratio c) Maximum Drawdown d) Value at Risk Explanation:The Sharpe Ratio measures the excess return earned by a fund over the risk-free rate, per unit of total risk, as defined by its portfolio’s standard deviation. It is a key indicator of risk-adjusted performance.61 / 100Investors make capital commitments, which are called by the Investment Manager making Capital Calls from investors, over a pre-defined period known as ________. a) Commitment Period b) Pre-defined period c) Post-defined period d) Investing period Explanation:The Commitment Period is the pre-defined period during which the Investment Manager can make Capital Calls from investors, asking for the capital commitments made by the investors to be invested in the fund.62 / 100In a limited liability partnership structure that is widely prevalent abroad, the investment managers are known as ________. a) General partners b) Investment manager c) Investors d) Distributors Explanation:In a limited liability partnership (LLP) structure, commonly used abroad, the investment managers are referred to as General Partners. They are responsible for managing the fund and making investment decisions.63 / 100_________ can also be Discretionary Trusts, where the trustee exercises discretion on the utilization of the assets of the trust, determines beneficial interest, and also exercises discretion over the distribution of income of the Trust. a) Indeterminate Trusts b) Determinate Trust c) Indenture of Trust d) Trust teed Explanation:Indeterminate Trusts can be Discretionary Trusts where the trustee has the authority to exercise discretion in managing the trust’s assets, determining beneficial interests, and distributing income, unlike determinate trusts with fixed terms.64 / 100For which type of investor is the applicable amount increased by the applicable surcharge along with a 4% Health and Education Cess? a) Non-resident investor b) Resident investor c) Foreign company d) All the above Explanation:The tax liability for all types of investors, including:Non-resident investorsResident investorsForeign companiesis subject to a surcharge based on their income levels. Additionally, a 4% Health and Education Cess is applied on top of the tax and surcharge to fund education and healthcare initiatives.This rule applies uniformly across all investor categories mentioned above.65 / 100__________ can be computed at such intervals, as determined by the Investment Manager, for the purposes of a closing or for redemptions or distributions, as applicable. a) Net Asset Value b) Beneficial Interest c) Valuation day d) Debt security Explanation:The Net Asset Value (NAV) can be computed at intervals determined by the Investment Manager, such as for the purpose of closing, redemptions, or distributions, to assess the value of the assets in the fund.66 / 100Category III AIF investors need to face the risk of ________ and increased market risks, on account of derivative exposures and use of leverage. a) sufficient liquidity b) liquidity c) sufficient illiquidity d) illiquidity Explanation:Category III AIF investors face the risk of illiquidity and increased market risks due to derivative exposures and leverage, which can lead to difficulties in quickly converting investments into cash without significant loss in value.67 / 100Short-term Capital Gains earned on the sale of equity shares, units of equity-oriented mutual funds, or units of business trust through a recognized stock exchange located in any _______ and consideration is paid or payable in foreign currency. a) Central Board of Direct Taxes b) International Financial Services Centre c) Assessing Officers d) All the above Explanation:Short-term capital gains earned on the sale of equity shares, units of equity-oriented mutual funds, or units of business trust through a recognized stock exchange in an International Financial Services Centre (IFSC), where the consideration is paid in foreign currency, are subject to specific tax provisions.68 / 100__________ fees are charged to investors, on redemptions made after the completion of the lock-in period but before the expiration of stated fund tenure. a) Exit Load b) Incentive Fee c) Redemption Gate d) Hurdle Rate Explanation:Exit Load is a fee charged to investors on redemptions made after the completion of the lock-in period but before the expiration of the stated fund tenure, usually to discourage early withdrawals and cover the fund’s administrative costs.69 / 100The person to whom the property is transferred is called the __________. a) Settlor b) Trustee c) Beneficiary d) Trustor Explanation:In a trust arrangement, the following roles are involved:Settlor (or Trustor): The person who creates the trust and transfers the property into the trust.Trustee: The person or entity to whom the property is transferred, and who holds and manages the trust property on behalf of the beneficiary.Beneficiary: The person for whose benefit the trust is created and who will eventually receive the benefits of the trust.So, the person to whom the property is transferred is the Trustee.70 / 100___________ are issued by the Investment Manager on the dates specified in the Agreement, which requires investors to the deposit requisite capital amount by a pre-specified date and through a specific method of payment a) Sponsor calls b) Drawdown c) ESG d) Capital calls Explanation:Capital calls are issued by the Investment Manager on specified dates, requiring investors to deposit the requisite capital amount by a pre-specified date and through a specified method of payment, as outlined in the investment agreement.71 / 100The _________ is managed by an India-based investment manager who enters into an Investment Advisory Arrangement with the Offshore Investment Manager, to provide recommendations on investment opportunities in the domestic market. a) Onshore Fund b) Offshore Fund c) Open-ended fund d) Close-ended fund Explanation:An Onshore Fund is managed by an India-based investment manager who enters into an Investment Advisory Arrangement with an Offshore Investment Manager to provide recommendations on investment opportunities within the domestic market.72 / 100________ means an AIF that invests primarily in unlisted securities of startups, emerging or early-stage venture capital undertakings mainly involved in new products, new services, technology or intellectual property right-based activities or a new business model and shall include an angel fund. a) Venture capital undertaking b) Capital Fund c) Angel Funds d) Venture Capital Fund Explanation:A Venture Capital Fund primarily invests in unlisted securities of startups or early-stage venture capital undertakings, typically involved in innovative products, services, technologies, or business models. It also includes angel funds.73 / 100Excessive leverage and concentrated positions taken in stocks can also increase the volatility of the fund. State Whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Excessive leverage and concentrated positions in stocks can amplify both the potential returns and the risks, leading to higher volatility in the fund’s performance.74 / 100According to the SEBI (AIF) Regulations, 2012, an Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) is defined as a ________ structure. a) Financial b) NBFC c) Corporate d) Privately pooled Explanation:The SEBI (Alternative Investment Funds) Regulations, 2012 define an AIF as a privately pooled investment vehicle that collects funds from investors for investing in accordance with a defined investment policy for the benefit of its investors. These funds are not publicly offered and are privately managed. Unlike NBFCs (Non-Banking Financial Companies) or corporate structures, AIFs function as pooled funds, primarily targeting sophisticated investors, including high-net-worth individuals (HNIs) and institutional investors. The privately pooled nature of AIFs ensures exclusivity, regulatory oversight, and flexibility in investment strategies across different asset classes.75 / 100________ is a pooled investment vehicle, which invests in other AIFs in the industry, with the purpose of achieving greater diversification across different investment strategies. a) Fund of Funds b) Sovereign Wealth Funds c) Insurance Companies Fund d) Additional Funds Explanation:A Fund of Funds is a pooled investment vehicle that invests in other AIFs, aiming to achieve greater diversification by exposing investors to different investment strategies and asset classes.76 / 100The agreement prepared by legal advisors, wherein the trustee appoints the investment manager of the Category III AIF, is known as ________. a) Investor Side Letter b) Investment Management Agreement c) Contribution Agreement d) Advisory Agreement Explanation:The Investment Management Agreement is prepared by legal advisors, where the trustee appoints the investment manager of the Category III AIF. This agreement outlines the roles, responsibilities, and terms of the management relationship.77 / 100Venture capital, private equity, hedge funds, Over-the-counter and exchange-traded derivative contracts, real estate, commodities, precious metals, arts, and antiques are avenues for ___________. a) Traditional Investment b) Industrial Revolution c) Fund management d) Alternative Investment Explanation:Venture capital, private equity, hedge funds, derivatives, real estate, commodities, precious metals, arts, and antiques are considered avenues for Alternative Investment, which typically involve non-traditional assets that are less liquid and have higher risk and return potential.78 / 100The concentration limit of __________ is on the fund corpus and not on total contributions from one investor. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 30 percent d) 25 percent Explanation:The concentration limit of 10 percent refers to the maximum amount that can be invested in a single portfolio company or asset, and it is calculated based on the total fund corpus, not the contributions from individual investors.79 / 100A Foundation is a __________ organization that donates funds and provides support to other organizations, for charitable purposes. a) profit b) not-for-profit c) private d) public Explanation:A Foundation is a not-for-profit organization that donates funds and provides support to other organizations for charitable purposes, typically to support causes like education, healthcare, and social welfare.80 / 100Unlisted securities should be valued at the ________ price which represents the true and fair market value of such unlisted securities. a) Over the Counter b) Mark-to-Market Margin c) Best Estimate d) Fair Market Value Explanation:Unlisted securities should be valued at the Best Estimate price, which reflects the true and fair market value of such securities, as determined by the fund’s valuation policy.81 / 100________ helps to align the interest of the Investment Manager with the interest of the fund and encourages the Investment Manager to seek the best execution of investments for the interest of the investors in the fund. a) Incentive fees b) Transaction Expenses c) Total Fees d) Operating Expenses Explanation:Incentive fees are designed to align the interests of the Investment Manager with those of the fund’s investors, motivating the manager to seek the best execution of investments and maximize returns for the fund.82 / 100_________ may be invoked by the Indian income-tax authorities, in case any arrangements entered into by a Category III AIF are found to be impermissible avoidance arrangements. a) General Anti-Avoidance Rule b) Concessional tax rates c) Goods and Service tax Rule d) Dividend Distribution Tax Rule Explanation:The General Anti-Avoidance Rule (GAAR) may be invoked by Indian income-tax authorities if any arrangements entered into by a Category III AIF are found to be impermissible avoidance arrangements, aimed at avoiding tax.83 / 100_________ Funds were started by several countries such as members of the OPEC, China, Japan, Singapore and Malaysia. a) Pension Funds b) Sovereign Wealth c) Insurance Companies Fund d) Fund of Funds Explanation:Sovereign Wealth Funds were established by several countries, including members of OPEC, China, Japan, Singapore, and Malaysia. These funds are state-owned investment funds used to manage national savings or surplus capital.84 / 100________ agreement sets out the terms and conditions on which an investor will subscribe to the securities issued by an offshore fund. a) Subscription Agreement b) Advisory Agreement c) Wrapper d) Contribution Agreement Explanation:A Subscription Agreement outlines the terms and conditions under which an investor will subscribe to the securities issued by an offshore fund, including the amount to be invested, the rights, and obligations of the investor.85 / 100_________ of the following disclosures should be made in the section of ‘Proposed Investment Strategy’ of an ideal pitchbook: a) Investment Opportunity and Expected risk-return profile of the fund/scheme, on implementation of the Investment Strategy b) Key service providers and governance mechanisms c) Details of the Distributor appointed by the Fund d) Fund Structure and relevant jurisdiction, if the fund is an offshore fund Explanation:The “Proposed Investment Strategy” section of an ideal Pitch Book should include the investment opportunity and the expected risk-return profile, providing potential investors with a clear understanding of how the strategy will be implemented and the anticipated outcomes.86 / 100___________ measures allow investors to compare the returns of a Category III AIF, adjusted for the risk level of a benchmark. a) Sharpe Ratio b) Risk-adjusted performance c) Traynor Ratio d) Maximum Drawdown Explanation:Risk-adjusted performance measures allow investors to compare the returns of a Category III AIF with the risk level of a benchmark, helping assess the fund’s performance relative to the risk taken.87 / 100___________ an Alternative Investment Fund or scheme of an Alternative Investment Fund in which each investor is an accredited investor and invests not less than Rs. 70 crores. a) Large Value Fund for Foreign Investors b) Large Value Fund for Portfolio c) Large Value Fund for Accredited Managers d) Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors Explanation:A Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors is an Alternative Investment Fund or scheme where each investor is an accredited investor and invests a minimum of Rs. 70 crores, ensuring a high level of investment and participation.88 / 100The _________ can charge customized fees to the investors, based on the investor profile, targeted market segment, tenure of the fund, and other macro-economic factors or risks. a) Fixed plus variable fee b) Set-up costs c) Portfolio Manager d) Transaction expenses Explanation:The Portfolio Manager can charge customized fees to investors, taking into account factors such as the investor’s profile, targeted market segment, fund tenure, and macroeconomic risks. This flexibility allows tailoring fees to specific investment strategies and conditions.89 / 100Investments made by Offshore Funds in India are regulated by SEBI. State Whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Investments made by Offshore Funds in India are regulated by SEBI to ensure compliance with Indian securities laws, promote transparency, and protect the interests of investors and markets.90 / 100Specific interest is calculated based on the underlying asset price, exercise price, inherent volatility in asset price, changes in interest rates and time period to Option Expiry. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Specific interest is not calculated based on these factors. These parameters are typically used to determine the price of options, not specific interest. Specific interest generally relates to accrued interest in debt instruments or other financial contexts.91 / 100The ________ schemes offer units to investors on a continuous basis and do not have a fixed maturity period. a) Closed-ended b) Offshore fund c) Open-ended d) On-share fund Explanation:Open-ended schemes offer units to investors on a continuous basis and allow them to enter or exit at any time. These schemes do not have a fixed maturity period, providing liquidity and flexibility to investors.92 / 100__________ is pre-defined in the Private Placement Memorandum and depends on the Investment Manager, investment strategy and the time remaining until fund liquidation. a) Exit Load b) Lock-in Period c) Soft cap d) Capital Invested Explanation:Exit Load is a fee pre-defined in the Private Placement Memorandum. It is influenced by the Investment Manager, the fund’s investment strategy, and the time remaining until fund liquidation, serving as a deterrent for early withdrawals.93 / 100Category III AIFs deploy complex strategies with a view to make short-term gains and generate __________. a) Beta b) Startup c) Alpha d) None of these Explanation:Alpha represents the excess returns generated over a benchmark. Category III AIFs use complex strategies aimed at achieving short-term gains and generating alpha to deliver superior performance to their investors.94 / 100_______ refers to the extent to which a distribution is not symmetrical across the mean. a) Standard deviation b) Mean c) Skewness d) Kurtosis Explanation:Skewness measures the asymmetry of a distribution around its mean. A positive skew indicates a longer tail on the right, while a negative skew indicates a longer tail on the left.95 / 100In case the IPO involves the fresh issue of equity shares and the majority of the proceeds from such fresh issue are proposed to be utilized for capital expenditure, then the lock-in period for such shares shall be _______. a) 1 year b) 2 years c) 3 years d) 5 years Explanation:Under the SEBI ICDR Regulations, in case a majority of the proceeds of the fresh issue component of the IPO is proposed to be utilized for capital expenditure, then the promoters’ contribution shall be locked-in for a longer period of three years from the date of allotment in the IPO, as against 18 months, which is applicable in other instances. Similarly, in such a situation, the promoters’ holding in excess of minimum promoters’ contribution shall be locked-in for a longer period of one year, and not six months.96 / 100Model Code Of Conduct for Category III AIF Distributors Inform investors about the key risk factors of each fund/scheme and desist from ________ or exaggeration. a) Representation b) Internal code c) External code d) Misrepresentation Explanation:The Model Code of Conduct for Category III AIF Distributors requires them to inform investors about key risk factors and desist from misrepresentation or exaggeration. This ensures that investors make informed decisions based on accurate information.97 / 100An _______ is a Trust in which the Settlor of the Trust does not have powers to revoke the trust and the trust shall continue operations, until its purpose is served or stipulated tenure is complete. a) Dividend Trust b) Irrevocable Trust c) Indebenture Trust d) Revocable Trust Explanation:An Irrevocable Trust is a trust in which the Settlor cannot revoke or alter the terms once it is established. The trust continues to operate until its purpose is fulfilled or the stipulated tenure is complete.98 / 100Marketing, Sales, Investor Support and Relationship Management form the four pillars of AIF distributorship. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The four pillars of AIF distributorship are Marketing, Sales, Investor Support, and Relationship Management, as these elements are essential for promoting and managing AIF products effectively.99 / 100A ________ is a legal entity set,up for the transfer of property from one person to another, with the intention that the Trust is administered for the benefit of the owners. a) Investment b) Trust c) Claim Money d) Profit Explanation:A Trust is a legal entity set up for the transfer of property from one person (the Settlor) to another, with the intention that the trust is managed for the benefit of the beneficiaries or owners.100 / 100__________ the types of fees charged by Investment Managers for maximizing the return for investors in the Category III AIF. a) Exit Load b) High Water Mark c) Management Fees d) Performance Fees Explanation:Performance Fees are charged by Investment Managers in Category III AIFs to maximize returns for investors. These fees are typically based on the fund’s performance and are designed to align the interests of the manager with those of the investors.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit