NISM Series XIX-C: Alternative Investment Fund Managers Cert. Mock Test - 3/50 NISM Series XIX-C: Alternative Investment Fund Managers Cert. Mock Test – 3 1 / 50The __________ of all securities is determined on every valuation day, and the NAV is accordingly revised to represent the ‘true worth’ of the fund portfolio as of that day. a) Mark-to-Market b) Market-to-Market c) Fair Market Value d) Marked-to-Market 2 / 50The Investment Manager or the Sponsor of every Category III AIF shall have sufficient skin-in-the-game and a continuing interest of at least _________ of the fund corpus or Rs. 10 crore, whichever is lower. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 5 percent d) 15 percent Explanation:The Investment Manager or Sponsor of a Category III AIF must maintain a continuing interest of at least 5% of the fund corpus or Rs. 10 crore, whichever is lower, ensuring alignment of their interests with the investors.3 / 50The Surcharge is calculated on the tax liability of the assesses at these applicable rates. Further, Health and Education Cess at the rate of _______ is levied on the aggregate of tax and surcharge. a) 5% b) 3% c) 6% d) 4% Explanation:The Health and Education Cess is levied at the rate of 4% on the aggregate of tax and surcharge. This cess is used to fund health and education initiatives by the government.4 / 50Investment Management Fees, Registrar and Transfer Agent Fees, Custodian Fees, Ongoing service charges and other costs, Distributor Commissions and Marketing Expenses are charged by ________. a) Mutual funds b) Assets under management c) Net Asset Value d) Gross Asset Value Explanation:Mutual funds charge fees such as Investment Management Fees, Registrar and Transfer Agent Fees, Custodian Fees, Distributor Commissions, and Marketing Expenses to cover the operational and management costs associated with running the fund.5 / 50________ is a type of Directional Strategy, wherein the investment manager takes both long and short positions in selected stocks or a broad-based market index, but maintains a net short exposure to the broad market. a) Short-bias b) Dedicated-short c) Long-bias d) Dedicated-Long Explanation:Short bias is a directional strategy where the investment manager takes both long and short positions but maintains a net short exposure to the broad market, aiming to profit from declining stock or market index values.6 / 50________ charged by equity-oriented Mutual Fund schemes, as per amendments made to SEBI Regulations, have encouraged mutual fund managers to launch Category III AIFs in India and make investments, with greater flexibility. a) Risk Management Framework b) Registered Foreign Portfolio Investors c) Rationalization of Total Expense Ratio d) Alternative Investment Funds Explanation:The Rationalization of the Total Expense Ratio charged by equity-oriented Mutual Fund schemes, as per amendments made to SEBI Regulations, has encouraged mutual fund managers to launch Category III AIFs in India, providing them with greater flexibility in managing investments.7 / 50The ________ includes product analysis on the basis of the investment strategy of the fund/scheme, inherited costs, risks and return in the fund, product suitability of the fund based on risk profiling, etc. a) Distributors’ Sales Pitch b) Investor's Sales Pitch c) Agents’ Sales Pitch d) None of these Explanation:The distributor’s sales pitch includes product analysis based on the fund’s investment strategy, inherited costs, risks, returns, and product suitability according to the investor’s risk profile. It aims to help investors understand the investment before making a decision.8 / 50STT at the rate of __________ is levied on the delivery-based sale of units of equity-oriented mutual funds, traded on a recognized stock exchange in India. a) 0.001% b) 0.01% c) 0.002% d) 0.02% Explanation:STT (Securities Transaction Tax) at the rate of 0.001% is levied on the delivery-based sale of units of equity-oriented mutual funds traded on a recognized stock exchange in India.9 / 50The enhanced surcharge rate of 25% for foreign portfolio investors with total income above _________. a) Rs.5 crore b) Rs.3 crore c) Rs.4 crore d) Rs.2 crore Explanation:The enhanced surcharge rate of 25% applies to foreign portfolio investors whose total income exceeds Rs. 2 crore. This is applicable to their tax liability as per the relevant tax regulations.10 / 50For ________, Net Worth = (Book Value of all Assets, other than intangible assets) – (Book Value of total liabilities). a) Trust b) body corporate c) Accredited Investors d) Funds set up by the Central Government Explanation:For a Trust, the Net Worth is calculated as the Book Value of all Assets, other than intangible assets, minus the Book Value of total liabilities. This helps in determining the financial strength of the trust.11 / 50The trustee shall not permit a change in the terms of the scheme, or fees and expenses that will adversely impact the interests of the investors in the fund. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:The trustee must ensure that any changes in the terms of the scheme, or the fees and expenses, do not adversely impact the interests of the investors in the fund. This is a key principle of investor protection in fund management.12 / 50_________ funds are offered to investors for a limited time period, as specified by the Investment Manager, in the Placement Memorandum. a) Closed-ended b) Off-share fund c) Open-ended d) On-share fund Explanation:Closed-ended funds are offered to investors for a limited time period, as specified by the Investment Manager in the Placement Memorandum. These funds have a fixed duration and investors cannot redeem their investments before the fund’s maturity.13 / 50__________ is also known as Systematic Risk, such as changes in geo-political conditions, macro-economic conditions, and other market forces that are not in the control of the Investment Manager. a) Market Risk Premium b) Beta c) Expected Return d) Alpha Explanation:Beta is also known as Systematic Risk, as it represents the risk arising from factors such as changes in geopolitical conditions, macroeconomic conditions, and other market forces that are beyond the control of the investment manager.14 / 50Category III AIF shall build the required operational efficiency and capability to suspend redemptions and shall not accept any new subscriptions or commitments from investors during the period of such suspension. This is typically done in exceptional circumstances where liquidity issues arise. a) Investment Manager b) Investment sponsor c) Investment agents d) Investment customers Explanation:Category III Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs) are designed for complex and high-risk strategies, such as hedge funds, long-short funds, and high-frequency trading.The Investment Manager is responsible for building operational efficiency to suspend redemptions in exceptional circumstances, such as liquidity issues or market disruptions.During such suspension, no new subscriptions or commitments from investors are accepted, ensuring fair treatment for existing investors.Why Not Other Options?Investment Sponsor: Provides initial capital but does not manage fund operations.Investment Agents: Typically handle distribution and client acquisition, not fund management.Investment Customers: They are investors but do not control operational decisions.15 / 50The Investment Manager and Sponsor of a Category III AIF have a ________ towards investors in the fund. a) Fiduciary duty b) Capital gain duty c) Risk-free duty d) None of these Explanation:The Investment Manager and Sponsor of a Category III AIF have a fiduciary duty towards investors in the fund. This means they are required to act in the best interests of the investors, managing the fund with care, loyalty, and good faith.16 / 50Section 111A is applicable to the following short-term capital gains, EXCEPT __________. a) Short-term capital gains on the sale of equity shares listed on a recognized stock exchange are chargeable to STT. b) Short-term capital gains earned on the sale of units of an equity-oriented mutual fund sold through a recognized stock exchange in an IFSC are not chargeable to STT. c) Short-term Capital Gains earned on the sale of units of an equity-oriented mutual fund sold through a recognized stock exchange, chargeable to STT d) Short-term capital gains on the sale of equity shares listed on a recognized stock exchange are not chargeable to STT. Explanation:Section 111A is applicable to short-term capital gains on the sale of equity shares or equity-oriented mutual fund units that are listed on a recognized stock exchange and chargeable to STT. However, it does not apply to short-term capital gains on the sale of equity shares listed on a recognized stock exchange that are not chargeable to STT.17 / 50________ is taken by a Category III AIF to compensate the fund for financial losses arising from the death or incapacity of a key executive, such as the investment manager. a) D & O Liability Insurance b) Key-man Insurance c) F & O Liability Insurance d) All the above Explanation:Key-man Insurance is taken by a Category III AIF to compensate the fund for financial losses arising from the death or incapacity of a key executive, such as the investment manager, ensuring continuity of operations.18 / 50__________ is the peak-to-trough decline in the Assets under the Management of a Category III AIF, during a specific reporting period. a) Peak Value b) Trough Value c) Maximum drawdown d) Value at Risk Explanation:Maximum drawdown is the peak-to-trough decline in the Assets under Management (AUM) of a Category III AIF during a specific reporting period. It measures the largest loss from the highest point to the lowest point, indicating the risk of significant loss during that period.19 / 50SEBI recently introduced the framework for _______ in the Indian securities markets. a) Accredited Distributors b) Accredited Investors c) Accredited Investees d) Accredited Securities Explanation:SEBI recently introduced the framework for Accredited Investors in the Indian securities markets. This framework defines qualified investors who meet specific financial criteria and are eligible to participate in certain investment opportunities, such as Category III AIFs.20 / 50A Category III AIF may invest by participating in a private placement of securities by the issuer or in a __________. a) Preferential Allotment b) Private Placement Manager c) Qualified Institutions Placement d) Primary Placement Manager Explanation:A Category III AIF may invest by participating in a Qualified Institutions Placement (QIP), which is a capital raising tool available to listed companies, allowing them to issue securities to qualified institutional buyers.21 / 50A _________ is perfectly symmetrical when divided into two halves by the mean of the data interpreted. a) Leptokurtic Distributions b) Normal Distribution c) Platykurtic Distributions d) Standard Distribution Explanation:A Normal Distribution is perfectly symmetrical when divided in two halves by the mean of the data. The distribution follows a bell-shaped curve, with an equal distribution of values on both sides of the mean.22 / 50In Income Tax Act, 1961, _________ provides that income accrued to, or received by the unit holder, in the nature of ‘profits or gains from business or profession’ earned by the Investment Fund, is exempted from tax, in the hands of unit holders a) Section 23(10FBB) b) Section 10(23FBB) c) Section 23(10FBA) d) Section 10(23FBA) Explanation:Section 10(23FBB) of the Income Tax Act, 1961, provides that income accrued to, or received by the unit holder, in the nature of ‘profits or gains from business or profession’ earned by the Investment Fund, is exempted from tax in the hands of the unit holders.23 / 50Which statistical measure quantifies the level of deviations of data values from its mean? a) Standard deviation b) Mean c) Skewness d) Kurtosis Explanation:Standard Deviation (SD) measures the dispersion or spread of data values around the mean. A higher standard deviation indicates greater variability, while a lower standard deviation means the values are closer to the mean.Why Not Other Options? Mean: Represents the average of the data set but does not measure deviation. Skewness: Measures the asymmetry of data distribution, not the spread. Kurtosis: Measures the tailedness (extreme deviations) of the data but not overall dispersion.24 / 50The stated __________ is analyzed to check for the investment methodology and risk factors involved while investing in targeted securities, such as excessive limits on short positions, excessive derivative trading, and concentration limits. a) Investment Strategy b) Investment Management c) Manager Selection d) Past Track Record of the Investment Explanation:The stated Investment Strategy is analyzed to check for the investment methodology and risk factors involved while investing in targeted securities. This includes assessing excessive limits on short positions, derivatives trading, and concentration limits, which help evaluate the risk profile of the investment approach.25 / 50A distribution having Skewness of greater than zero indicates a ______ skewed distribution. a) zero b) unity c) negatively d) positively Explanation:A distribution with a Skewness greater than zero indicates a positively skewed distribution. In this case, the right tail of the distribution is longer or fatter, meaning most of the data points are clustered on the left side, with a few larger values on the right.26 / 50On the date of entering into an options contract (T-day), the Total Exposure is computed as the _________ of the Option Contract. a) Notional Principal b) Unlisted equity c) Unlisted securities d) Debt security Explanation:On the date of entering into an options contract (T-day), the Total Exposure is computed as the Notional Principal of the Option Contract. This represents the total value of the underlying asset that the option contract controls, without considering the price paid for the option itself.27 / 50_________ is provided to the investment manager as an incentive to outperform the hurdle rate as well as the high water mark of the units issued to a particular class of investors. a) Incentive Fees b) High Water Mark c) Hurdle rate of return d) All the above Explanation:Incentive Fees are provided to the investment manager as an incentive to outperform the hurdle rate as well as the high water mark of the units issued to a particular class of investors. These fees are typically tied to the fund’s performance above these benchmarks.28 / 50Distributors shall enter into Soft Dollar Arrangements with investment managers of a Category III AIF, without disclosing to clients. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The statement is False. Distributors must disclose any Soft Dollar Arrangements with investment managers of a Category III AIF to their clients. Such arrangements should be transparent to ensure that clients are aware of any potential conflicts of interest.29 / 50Category III AIFs operating from GIFT City need to pay GST on services received from external providers but are exempt from charging GST on Management Fees. State whether True or False. a) True b) False 30 / 50The PPM is issued by the Category III AIF _________ of the fund to prospective investors for the purpose of inviting subscriptions to units of a new scheme a) Investor b) Distributor c) Sponsor d) Agent Explanation:The PPM (Private Placement Memorandum) is issued by the Sponsor of the Category III AIF to prospective investors for the purpose of inviting subscriptions to units of a new scheme. The Sponsor is responsible for structuring and managing the fund and initiating the offer to investors.31 / 50_________ is akin to an Offer Document detailing all the important information related to the Category III AIF and its proposed investment activities. a) Private Placement Memorandum b) Private Placement Manager c) Primary placement Memorandum d) Primary Placement Manager Explanation:The Private Placement Memorandum (PPM) is akin to an Offer Document, detailing all the important information related to the Category III AIF and its proposed investment activities. It provides potential investors with key details about the fund’s structure, strategy, risks, and terms.32 / 50In 2006, the UNO launched the _______ based on the notion that an _______ approach can affect the performance of investment portfolios and should, therefore, be considered alongside more traditional financial factors if investors are to properly fulfill their fiduciary duty. a) ESG, PRI b) PRI, AIF c) PRI, ESG d) AIF, ESG Explanation:In 2006, the UNO launched the PRI (Principles for Responsible Investment) based on the notion that an ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) approach can affect the performance of investment portfolios and should, therefore, be considered alongside more traditional financial factors if investors are to properly fulfill their fiduciary duty.33 / 50_______ are an indirect incentive provided to potential investors, wherein the distributor gives back a part of the commission earned from the AIF, to the investor. a) Pre-backs b) Pass-back c) Setup-backs d) All the above Explanation:Pass-back is an indirect incentive provided to potential investors, wherein the distributor gives back a part of the commission earned from the AIF to the investor. This arrangement can be used to attract investors by offering them a portion of the fees as a rebate.34 / 50_________ is the process by which the investment manager of a Category III AIF will call the capital commitment from its investors, as per the funding requirements and investment strategy of the fund. a) Commitment b) Commercial c) Sponsor fund d) Drawdown Explanation:Drawdown is the process by which the investment manager of a Category III AIF will call the capital commitment from its investors, as per the funding requirements and investment strategy of the fund. This ensures that capital is available when needed for investments.35 / 50________ may be invoked by the Indian income-tax authorities, in case any arrangements entered into by a Category III AIF are found to be impermissible avoidance arrangements. a) CBDT b) DTTA c) GAAR d) LOB Explanation:GAAR (General Anti-Avoidance Rules) may be invoked by the Indian income-tax authorities if any arrangements entered into by a Category III AIF are found to be impermissible avoidance arrangements. GAAR aims to prevent tax avoidance schemes that are structured to exploit loopholes in the tax laws.36 / 50Expected Return from an investment is a return above the Opportunity Cost of that investment. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:Expected return from an investment refers to the anticipated profit or gain based on historical data, probabilities, or projected performance. It is not necessarily above the opportunity cost but rather an estimate of potential earnings. On the other hand, opportunity cost represents the return foregone from the next best alternative investment. The expected return may be higher, lower, or equal to the opportunity cost, depending on the investment’s risk and performance.Thus, expected return is not inherently defined as a return above the opportunity cost, making the statement False.37 / 50_________ is an AIF that invests in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure, or other sectors or areas which the government or regulators consider as socially or economically desirable and shall include Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Social Venture Funds, Infrastructure Funds, and such other AIFs as may be specified under the Regulations from time to time. a) Category I AIF b) Category II AIF c) Category III AIF d) None of these Explanation:Category I AIF is an AIF that invests in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure, or other sectors deemed socially or economically desirable by the government or regulators. It includes Venture Capital Funds, SME Funds, Social Venture Funds, Infrastructure Funds, and similar AIFs specified under the regulations.38 / 50The third party make the valuation in accordance with ________. a) International Accepted Valuation Methodology b) Prescribed rules, accounting standards c) Valuation Standards adopted by a professional Organization d) All the above Explanation:The third party makes the valuation in accordance with all of the above: internationally accepted valuation methodology, prescribed rules, accounting standards, and valuation standards adopted by a professional organization. This ensures that the valuation is conducted in a consistent and reliable manner.39 / 50What is the term used to describe the total amount drawn down by the investment manager from investors in a Category III AIF for the purpose of making investments? a) Sponsor Commitment b) Capital Invested c) Investor Class-wise schedule d) Drawdown Explanation:Drawdown refers to the total amount called by the investment manager from investors in a Category III Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) for deploying into investments. Investors commit capital upfront, but the fund manager draws it in stages as needed for investments, ensuring efficient capital utilization.Why Not Other Options? Sponsor Commitment: The amount invested by the fund’s sponsor, not the total capital drawn from all investors. Capital Invested: Refers to the actual capital deployed, but does not specify the mechanism of drawing funds. Investor Class-wise Schedule: A classification of investors based on investment commitments, not fund utilization.40 / 50Drawdown notices can be delivered physically or via Email notices. Other modes of issuance used by the Category III AIF should be clearly communicated to the investors. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:A drawdown notice can indeed be delivered physically or via email, and any other modes of issuance used by the Category III AIF should be clearly communicated to the investors. This ensures transparency and clarity in communication with the investors.41 / 50________ have a stated investment mandate and investment policy, as described by the Asset Management Company, managing the mutual fund. a) Lock-in Period b) High Water Mark c) Mutual Funds d) Performance Fees Explanation:Mutual funds have a stated investment mandate and investment policy, which are described by the Asset Management Company (AMC) managing the fund. These policies define how the fund will invest, the types of assets it will focus on, and the strategies it will use to achieve its investment objectives.42 / 50The Capital Asset Pricing Model compares the return achieved by the fund to the ________. a) Stock Exchange b) Absolute-return c) Reporting return d) None of the above Explanation:The Capital Asset Pricing Model (CAPM) compares the return achieved by a fund to the reporting return, which typically refers to the return expected from a benchmark or market index, adjusted for the risk of the investment. The purpose of CAPM is to evaluate whether the fund’s return is adequate for the level of risk taken.43 / 50Valuation of Derivative positions is done by computing the Total Exposure with the __________. a) Exposure in Futures Contracts b) Exposure in Options Contracts c) Margin d) All the above Explanation:Valuation of derivative positions, such as futures and options contracts, is done by computing the total exposure, which includes the exposure in futures contracts, exposure in options contracts, and the margin required. This provides a comprehensive view of the risk and exposure associated with the derivative positions held by the fund.44 / 50_________ payable to the Investment Manager is based on the return earned by the Category III AIF, using current market prices. a) Incentive fees b) Beneficial Interest c) Premium pay d) Marked price Explanation:Incentive fees payable to the Investment Manager are typically based on the return earned by the Category III AIF, using current market prices. These fees are designed to reward the manager for generating returns that exceed a specific benchmark or target.45 / 50______ is difficult to implement and can be riskier, especially at times of changing macroeconomic factors and unpredictable events. a) Activist Strategy b) Convertible Arbitrage Strategy c) Merger Arbitrage Strategy d) Event-driven Investment Explanation:The Convertible Arbitrage Strategy involves taking advantage of price discrepancies between a company’s convertible securities (such as convertible bonds) and its underlying stock. This strategy is difficult to implement and can be riskier, especially during times of changing macroeconomic factors and unpredictable events, as it relies on market conditions and the behavior of both the convertible securities and the underlying stock.46 / 50NAV per unit of each Series of units, as on a Valuation Day, is computed as its Series NAV divided by the number of units issued in such Series. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The NAV (Net Asset Value) per unit of each Series of units is computed by dividing the Series NAV by the number of units issued in that specific series. This reflects the value of each unit for the investors in the fund as of the valuation day.47 / 50________ refers to funds that are provided in a hybrid structure involving the features of both debt and equity capital. a) Venture capital b) Mezzanine capital c) Private equity d) Commodities Explanation:Mezzanine capital refers to funds provided to businesses in a hybrid structure that includes both debt and equity capital. It typically represents debt that can be converted into equity or debt that carries equity-like features such as warrants or options. This type of financing is often used for expansion and growth, sitting between senior debt and equity in terms of risk and return.48 / 50After the Lock-in Period ends, the Exit Load charged by Investment Managers can range between _______ of the NAV of the fund. a) 0 to 25 percent b) 0 to 5 percent c) 5 to 10 percent d) 10 to 15 percent Explanation:After the lock-in period ends, the exit load charged by investment managers typically ranges between 0 to 5 percent of the Net Asset Value (NAV) of the fund. The exit load is a fee charged when investors redeem their units or withdraw their investments, and the amount can vary based on the fund’s structure and the time elapsed since the investment.49 / 50________ is the ratio between the unrealized value of investments made by the fund and the total capital contributions made by the investors. a) RVPI b) DPI c) TVPI d) AUM Explanation:RVPI (Residual Value to Paid-In) is the ratio between the unrealized value of investments made by the fund and the total capital contributions made by the investors. It indicates the remaining value of the investments that have yet to be realized, compared to the amount of capital contributed by investors.50 / 50Members of the Investment Committee, trustee, trustee company, directors of the trustee company, directors or designated partners of the Category III AIF shall: a) Maintain ethical standards of conduct and deal fairly and honestly with investee companies at all times b) Ensure proper care, due diligence, and exercise independent professional judgment in carrying out their roles c) Comply with all applicable laws and regulations, and avoid any conflict of interest d) All of the above Explanation:The correct answer is 4. All of the above because each of the listed responsibilities reflects key principles that apply to people in fiduciary and governance roles within a Category III Alternative Investment Fund (AIF) structure.Here’s why each option is valid:Maintain ethical standards and deal fairly– Trustees, directors, and committee members must act in the best interest of the investors and ensure fair treatment of investee companies. This builds trust and aligns with SEBI’s regulatory expectations.Ensure proper care, due diligence, and professional judgment– These individuals are expected to make informed decisions, avoid negligence, and assess risks carefully before making or approving investments.Comply with laws and avoid conflicts of interest– It’s crucial that these parties follow legal and regulatory guidelines and disclose or avoid situations where personal interests may conflict with the fund’s objectives.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit