NISM Series - XII Securities Markets Foundation Cert. - Full-Length Test/100 NISM Series – XII Securities Markets Foundation Cert. – Full-Length Test 1 / 100Who is the primary regulator of the securities market in India? a) RBI b) SEBI c) IRDAI d) PFRDA Explanation:The Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the statutory body established to protect the interests of investors in securities and to promote the development and regulation of the securities market in India. It oversees intermediaries, exchanges, and listed companies.2 / 100The secondary market is where already issued securities are traded between investors. a) True b) False Explanation:Unlike the primary market, where new securities are issued, the secondary market facilitates the trading of existing securities. This provides liquidity to investors, allowing them to enter or exit investments without affecting the capital of the issuer.3 / 100What is the process of determining the ‘fair price’ of a security through market interaction called? a) Underwriting b) Price Discovery c) Allotment d) Speculation Explanation:Price discovery is a core function of the securities market. It occurs when buyers and sellers interact in the exchange to arrive at a consensus price based on demand, supply, and available information about the security.4 / 100Which of the following acts as a unified regulator for financial services in the IFSC? a) SEBI b) RBI c) IFSCA d) AMFI Explanation:The International Financial Services Centres Authority (IFSCA) is the unified regulator for the development and regulation of financial products and services within the International Financial Services Centres (IFSC) in India, promoting ease of doing business.5 / 100Securities markets help in the efficient allocation of financial capital. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Securities markets act as a channel to transfer funds from savers (investors) to those who need capital for productive purposes (issuers). This efficient allocation of capital is a key driver for economic growth and industrial development.6 / 100Which segment of the market provides liquidity to existing securities? a) Primary Market b) Secondary Market c) Money Market d) Commodities Market Explanation:The secondary market provides marketability to existing securities. By allowing investors to sell their holdings to other investors, it ensures that capital is not “locked in” and remains liquid for the market participants.7 / 100Financial intermediaries help in facilitating interaction between investors and borrowers. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Intermediaries like brokers, merchant bankers, and depositories provide the necessary infrastructure and services that connect capital seekers (issuers) with capital providers (investors), making the market operations smooth and regulated.8 / 100An ‘Innovation Sandbox’ is used for: a) Direct trading b) Testing new FinTech solutions in a controlled environment c) Managing defaults d) Issuing IPOs Explanation:SEBI’s Innovation Sandbox allows FinTech firms to test their new technologies or business models in a live environment with real data but on a limited set of users to foster innovation while managing risks.9 / 100In the securities market, ‘Information Signaling’ means that prices reflect news about the issuer quickly. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Prices in a liquid secondary market react instantly to news regarding a company’s performance or economic changes. This serves as a signal to investors about the health and future prospects of the issuing entity.10 / 100The ‘Money Market’ deals with long-term debt instruments. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The money market is a segment of the financial market that deals with short-term lending and borrowing, typically for maturities of up to one year, whereas the securities/debt market handles long-term capital.11 / 100Equity capital represents ______ of the company. a) A loan b) Ownership c) A temporary deposit d) A liability only Explanation:Equity shares represent the ownership interest in a company. Equity holders are the owners who bear the risk of the business but also enjoy the rewards through dividends and capital appreciation.12 / 100Debt securities generally have a fixed maturity date and a predetermined interest rate. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Unlike equity, debt instruments like bonds or debentures are loans made by investors to the issuer. They usually come with a commitment to pay regular interest (coupon) and return the principal on a specific date.13 / 100What is the ‘Rule of 72’ used for? a) Calculating tax b) Estimating the time required to double an investment c) Calculating brokerage d) Measuring market volatility Explanation:The Rule of 72 is a simplified formula to estimate how many years it will take for an investment to double at a given annual fixed interest rate by dividing 72 by the rate.14 / 100Fundamental analysis involves studying price and volume patterns of a stock. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Fundamental analysis focuses on financial statements, earnings potential, and intrinsic value. The study of historical price and volume patterns to predict future movements is actually called “technical analysis.”15 / 100Which of the following is a ‘Hybrid Instrument’? a) Equity Shares b) Government Bonds c) Convertible Debentures d) Commercial Paper Explanation:Hybrid instruments combine features of both equity and debt. Convertible debentures start as debt (paying interest) but can be converted into equity shares after a certain period.16 / 100Asset allocation is the process of dividing an investment portfolio among different asset categories. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Asset allocation involves spreading investments across various classes like equity, debt, and gold to balance risk and reward based on an individual’s goals, risk tolerance, and investment horizon.17 / 100Which risk is specific to a particular company or industry? a) Systematic Risk b) Unsystematic Risk c) Market Risk d) Inflation Risk Explanation:Unsystematic risk is unique to a specific company (e.g., a strike) or industry. It can be reduced through diversification. Systematic risk, like interest rate changes, affects the whole market.18 / 100A ‘Growth Option’ in a mutual fund is suitable for investors who do not need regular income. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:In a growth option, the profits made by the scheme are reinvested rather than paid out as dividends. This helps in capital appreciation over the long term through the power of compounding.19 / 100What is ‘Intrinsic Value’ in equity investing? a) The current market price b) The value of a stock based on fundamental factors c) The face value of the share d) The price after a stock split Explanation:Intrinsic value is the “true” or “fair” value of a stock calculated by analyzing a company’s earnings, assets, and growth potential, independent of its current market price.20 / 100Technical analysis assumes that the market price reflects all known information. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Technical analysis views price as an aggregate indicator of all information. It focuses on the belief that historical price trends tend to repeat and uses charts to identify buying and selling opportunities.21 / 100Diversification helps in eliminating Systematic Risk. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Diversification can reduce or eliminate Unsystematic Risk (company-specific risk), but it cannot eliminate Systematic Risk (market-wide risk) because those factors affect all securities in the market.22 / 100Which of the following is a feature of Debt Investing? a) Right to vote in AGM b) Residual claim on profits c) Regular interest income d) Unlimited upside potential Explanation:Debt investors are creditors to the company. Their primary return is the regular interest (coupon) paid by the issuer. They do not have voting rights or a claim on residual profits like equity holders.23 / 100The ‘Face Value’ of a bond is the amount the issuer agrees to pay at maturity. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Also known as par value, the face value is the principal amount stated on the bond certificate which the issuer must repay to the bondholder when the bond reaches maturity.24 / 100In the ‘Equity Investing Process’, what is the first step typically? a) Executing the trade b) Research and Analysis c) Monitoring the portfolio d) Paying the brokerage Explanation:Before investing, a disciplined investor performs fundamental or technical research to identify suitable stocks. This is followed by trade execution and then ongoing monitoring of the investment’s performance.25 / 100Commodities like Gold are often used as a hedge against inflation. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Gold and other commodities often hold their value or appreciate when the purchasing power of paper currency declines due to inflation, making them a popular choice for diversifying a portfolio.26 / 100Which of the following is NOT a debt instrument? a) Treasury Bills b) Commercial Paper c) Equity Shares d) Certificate of Deposit Explanation:Equity shares represent ownership capital. Treasury Bills, Commercial Paper, and Certificates of Deposits are all debt or money market instruments used for borrowing and lending.27 / 100Higher risk is usually associated with the potential for higher returns. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The risk-return trade-off is a fundamental principle where investors demand a higher potential return to compensate them for taking on a higher level of uncertainty or risk in an investment.28 / 100What is a ‘Zero-Coupon Bond’? a) A bond that pays zero interest and is issued at par b) A bond issued at a discount and redeemed at face value c) A bond with a variable interest rate d) A bond that never matures Explanation:Zero-coupon bonds do not pay periodic interest. Instead, they are sold at a price lower than their face value (at a discount) and the “interest” is the difference received at maturity.29 / 100Real Estate is considered a highly liquid asset class. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Real estate is generally illiquid because it takes significant time, legal processing, and effort to find a buyer and complete a sale compared to stocks or mutual funds which can be sold instantly.30 / 100Inflation reduces the ‘Real Rate of Return’ on an investment. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The real rate of return is the nominal return minus the inflation rate. If an investment earns 8% but inflation is 6%, the actual increase in purchasing power (real return) is only 2%.31 / 100What is an IPO? a) Internal Profit Option b) Initial Public Offer c) Indian Private Offer d) International Price Order Explanation:An Initial Public Offer (IPO) is the first time a company offers its shares to the general public to raise capital and get listed on a stock exchange.32 / 100In a ‘Fixed Price Issue’, the price is determined by the demand of investors. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:In a fixed price issue, the issuer and lead manager set the price beforehand. It is in a “Book Building” issue where the price is discovered based on bids received from investors.33 / 100Who is responsible for ‘Underwriting’ a public issue? a) The Investor b) Merchant Bankers/Underwriters c) SEBI d) The Stock Exchange Explanation:Underwriters agree to subscribe to the securities if the public does not fully subscribe to the issue, thereby ensuring the issuer company raises the required minimum amount of capital.34 / 100‘ASBA’ stands for Application Supported by Blocked Amount. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:ASBA is a mechanism where the application money for an IPO is blocked in the investor’s bank account rather than being debited immediately. It is only debited upon successful allotment.35 / 100QIB stands for Qualified Institutional Buyers. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:QIBs are institutional investors like mutual funds, insurance companies, and banks who are perceived to have the expertise to evaluate and invest in the capital markets.36 / 100What is a ‘Rights Issue’? a) Issuing shares to the general public b) Issuing shares to existing shareholders at a specific price c) Selling shares to a few selected investors d) Giving free shares to employees Explanation:A rights issue allows existing shareholders to maintain their proportionate ownership by purchasing additional shares, usually at a discount to the market price, before they are offered to the public.37 / 100Merchant Bankers are also known as Lead Managers in an IPO. (True/False) a) True b) False 38 / 100The document containing all material details about a public issue is called: a) Share Certificate b) Prospectus c) Contract Note d) Trust Deed Explanation:A prospectus is a legal document that provides potential investors with detailed information about the company’s business, finances, promoters, and the risks involved in the investment.39 / 100The minimum subscription for a public issue of shares is usually: a) 50% b) 75% c) 90% d) 100% Explanation:As per SEBI regulations, if a company does not receive at least 90% of the issued amount as subscription, the issue is considered failed, and the money must be refunded to the applicants.40 / 100A ‘Draft Red Herring Prospectus’ (DRHP) does not contain the price of the shares. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:In a book-built issue, the DRHP contains all details except the price or the number of shares. The final price is determined only after the bidding process is complete.41 / 100Who maintains the record of shareholders on behalf of the company? a) Broker b) Registrar and Transfer Agent (RTA) c) Depository Participant d) Custodian Explanation:The RTA is an intermediary that keeps track of the data of all shareholders, processes share transfers, and handles dividend payments for the issuing company.42 / 100FPO stands for Follow-on Public Offer. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:An FPO is an issuance of shares to the public by a company that is already listed on a stock exchange, usually to raise additional capital or reduce promoter holding.43 / 100Which category of investors has a reservation in a public issue? a) Only Foreign Investors b) Retail Individual Investors (RII) c) Only Corporates d) No one Explanation:To encourage participation from small investors, SEBI mandates that a certain portion of a public issue (usually 35% in some cases) be reserved for Retail Individual Investors.44 / 100Private placement is the issue of securities to more than 200 people. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Private placement is the offer of securities to a select group of persons (up to 200 in a financial year) rather than the public at large. It is a faster way to raise capital.45 / 100What is the ‘Basis of Allotment’? a) The rule for determining how many shares each applicant gets b) The fee paid to the broker c) The date of listing d) The profit made by the company Explanation:When an issue is oversubscribed, the basis of allotment is finalized in consultation with the stock exchange to ensure a fair distribution of shares among applicants.46 / 100Listing of shares on a stock exchange is mandatory for an IPO. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:One of the primary objectives of an IPO is to have the company’s shares listed on a recognized stock exchange to provide liquidity and a market for the shareholders.47 / 100Who handles the collection of funds in a public issue? a) Lead Manager b) Bankers to the Issue c) RTA d) SEBI Explanation:Bankers to the issue are appointed to manage the flow of application money. They collect the forms/funds and update the lead managers on the subscription figures.48 / 100An ‘Offer for Sale’ (OFS) results in new capital coming into the company. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:In an OFS, existing shareholders (like promoters) sell their shares to the public. The proceeds go to the sellers, not to the company’s bank account.49 / 100What is the ‘Cut-off Price’ in an IPO? a) The lowest price in the price band b) The price at which shares are actually allotted to retail investors c) The price set by SEBI d) The opening price on listing day Explanation:In book-building, retail investors can bid at the “cut-off” price, which is the final price discovered through the bidding process, ensuring they get allotment if the issue succeeds.50 / 100A company must file its offer document with SEBI before a public issue. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Companies are required to submit the Draft Red Herring Prospectus (DRHP) to SEBI for review and observations to ensure all necessary disclosures are made for investor protection.51 / 100Which of the following is specifically included as a ‘security’ under the SCRA as per the 2025 updates? a) Cryptocurrencies b) Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs) c) Physical gold jewelry d) Real estate plots Explanation:The definition of ‘securities’ has been expanded to include Electronic Gold Receipts (EGRs), which represent gold held in vaults and can be traded on stock exchanges, providing a regulated way to invest in gold.52 / 100What are ‘Zero Coupon Zero Principal’ (ZCZP) instruments? a) High-interest corporate bonds b) Instruments issued by Not-for-Profit Organizations (NPOs) on Social Stock Exchanges c) Shares that pay no dividends d) Government bonds with zero risk Explanation:ZCZP instruments are used by NPOs to raise funds for social projects via the Social Stock Exchange. They do not pay interest (Zero Coupon) and the principal is not returned (Zero Principal), acting effectively as a donation for social impact.53 / 100The primary market is also known as the ‘New Issue Market.’ (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The primary market is where issuers (companies or governments) raise fresh capital by issuing securities directly to investors for the first time. This process facilitates the direct flow of savings into productive investments.54 / 100Who is the ‘Beneficial Owner’ of dematerialized securities? a) The Depository (NSDL/CDSL) b) The Depository Participant (DP) c) The Investor d) The Stock Exchange Explanation:In a demat system, the Depository is the ‘Registered Owner’ on the company’s books, but the actual investor who holds the units and enjoys all rights (like dividends) is the ‘beneficial owner.’55 / 100Which platform allows live testing of new FinTech innovations under SEBI’s oversight? a) Stock Exchange terminal b) Regulatory Sandbox c) SCORES d) Investor Charter Explanation:The Regulatory Sandbox provides a controlled environment where FinTech firms can test innovative products or services with real customers under certain regulatory relaxations for a limited period.56 / 100Securities markets facilitate ‘Price Discovery’ through the interaction of buyers and sellers. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Instead of prices being fixed by the government, the securities market allows millions of participants to trade, leading to a consensus on the ‘fair price’ based on supply, demand, and available information.57 / 100What is the role of an ‘Innovation Sandbox’? a) To sell shares to the public b) To provide offline access to market data for testing FinTech solutions c) To resolve investor complaints d) To print share certificates Explanation:The Innovation Sandbox is a non-live testing environment where FinTech applicants can use historical, anonymized data provided by Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) to develop and test their solutions before going live.58 / 100The secondary market provides ‘Marketability’ to securities. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:While the primary market creates the asset, the secondary market allows investors to exit their investments by selling them to other investors, thereby making the securities liquid and marketable.59 / 100Which entity is responsible for ‘Cyber Resilience’ in the securities market? a) Only the individual investor b) SEBI Regulated Entities (REs) c) The local police d) The postal department Explanation:SEBI has established a Cybersecurity and Cyber Resilience Framework (CSCRF) for Regulated Entities to ensure they have robust systems to protect against cyber threats and maintain market integrity.60 / 100Financial intermediaries help reduce the ‘Transaction Costs’ for investors. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:By providing specialized infrastructure, legal expertise, and pooling mechanisms, intermediaries like brokers and mutual funds make it cheaper and more efficient for individual investors to participate in the market.61 / 100What is the ‘Intrinsic Value’ of a stock? a) The current market price b) The value based on fundamental analysis of the company's earning potential c) The price set by the stock broker d) The amount of tax paid on the share Explanation:Intrinsic value is the “true” or “actual” worth of a stock derived from its future earnings and financial health. Fundamental analysts compare this to the market price to see if the stock is undervalued or overvalued.62 / 100Technical analysis primarily studies historical price and volume patterns. (True/False) a) True b) False 63 / 100Technical analysis primarily studies historical price and volume patterns. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Technical analysts believe that all known information is already reflected in the price. They use charts and indicators to identify trends and patterns that help predict future price movements based on past behavior.64 / 100Which document provides the ‘Riskometer’ for a mutual fund scheme? a) The company's annual report b) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) c) The investor's bank statement d) The PAN card Explanation:The Riskometer is a pictorial representation of the risk level (Low to Very High) and must be included in the SID, KIM, and all advertisements to help investors understand the potential volatility.65 / 100A ‘Growth Option’ in a mutual fund pays periodic dividends. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:In a growth option, the scheme’s returns are reinvested, leading to an increase in the NAV over time. This is suitable for investors who do not need regular income and want to benefit from compounding.66 / 100What is ‘Support’ in technical analysis? a) A price level where selling pressure is expected to increase b) A price level where buying interest is strong enough to stop a price fall c) Financial aid from the government d) The customer service desk of a broker Explanation:Support acts as a “floor” for the stock price. When the price drops to this level, more buyers tend to enter, preventing the price from falling further, at least temporarily.67 / 100Fundamental analysis includes the study of a company’s management quality. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Fundamental analysis is holistic. It examines financial statements (revenue, costs), industry features, and qualitative factors like management’s experience and corporate governance to estimate the company’s future potential.68 / 100Which of the following describes ‘Systematic Withdrawal Plan’ (SWP)? a) Investing a fixed amount every month b) Withdrawing a fixed amount or units at regular intervals c) Moving money from one scheme to another d) Closing the account permanently Explanation:SWP is the opposite of an SIP. It allows investors (especially retirees) to get a regular cash flow from their mutual fund investments by automatically redeeming a specific number of units or a fixed amount periodically.69 / 100A ‘Hybrid Instrument’ has features of both equity and debt. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Examples include convertible debentures (which start as debt but can become equity) or preference shares (which have a fixed dividend like debt but represent ownership like equity).70 / 100What is the ‘Portfolio Turnover Ratio’? a) The total number of investors in a fund b) A measure of how frequently the fund manager buys and sells securities c) The profit made by the fund d) The speed of the stock exchange Explanation:This ratio indicates the “churning” in the portfolio. A high ratio might mean higher transaction costs and taxes, which could impact the final returns for the unitholders.71 / 100Investors can use ‘Electronic Gold Receipts’ to hold gold in their Demat accounts. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:EGRs allow investors to trade and hold gold digitally. This eliminates concerns about physical storage, purity, and theft, as the gold is stored in regulated vaults and the receipts are traded on the stock exchange.72 / 100What is the minimum subscription requirement for a public issue of shares? a) 50% b) 75% c) 90% d) 100% Explanation:A company must receive at least 90% subscription of the net offer to the public. If it fails, the entire amount collected must be refunded to the investors within 4 days of the issue closing.73 / 100Underwriters are paid a commission for guaranteeing the subscription of an issue. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Underwriters (like banks or brokers) take the risk of buying the shares if the public does not. This ensures the company successfully raises the required capital, and in return, they receive an underwriting commission.74 / 100Which intermediary is responsible for finalizing the ‘Basis of Allotment’ in an oversubscribed IPO? a) The Stock Exchange b) The Registrar to the Issue c) The Underwriter d) The Investor Explanation:The Registrar scrutinizes the applications and, in consultation with the Lead Manager and Stock Exchange, decides how shares will be distributed among applicants when demand exceeds supply.75 / 100A ‘Shelf Prospectus’ allows a company to make multiple issues of bonds over a period without a new prospectus. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Valid for up to one year, a shelf prospectus saves time and costs for frequent issuers (like NBFCs) by allowing them to raise debt multiple times using the same base document, only filing an “Information Memorandum” for each new tranche.76 / 100What is the role of ‘Bankers to the Issue’? a) To give loans to the company b) To manage the collection of application funds c) To trade shares on the exchange d) To print the prospectus Explanation:They are specialized banks appointed to collect application money from investors and provide regular updates on the total collections to the Lead Managers during the issue period.77 / 100Institutional investors can withdraw their bids during the book-building process. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:To maintain the integrity of the price-discovery process, SEBI does not allow QIBs or NIIs to withdraw or reduce their bids once they have been placed, though they can increase their bid price or quantity.78 / 100What is ‘Hard Underwriting’? a) When the underwriter refuses to buy shares b) When the underwriter is forced by the government c) When the underwriter guarantees subscription from the moment the issue opens d) When the shares are printed on hard paper Explanation:In hard underwriting, the commitment is absolute and is made before the issue opens. This is different from “soft underwriting” where the risk only begins after the issue closes and a shortfall is seen.79 / 100An ‘Abridged Prospectus’ must be provided with every application form. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Since the full prospectus is hundreds of pages long, the abridged version contains all the essential details (summary) to help the investor make a quick but informed decision.80 / 100Who appoints the ‘Debenture Trustees’? a) The investors b) The company issuing the debt c) SEBI directly d) The Stock Exchange Explanation:The issuer must appoint a Debenture Trustee before the issue opens to protect the interests of the debenture holders and ensure the company fulfills its repayment obligations.81 / 100‘ASBA’ ensures that money stays in the investor’s bank account until allotment. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Application Supported by Blocked Amount (ASBA) simply “blocks” the funds in the investor’s account. The money is only debited if the shares are allotted; otherwise, the block is removed, ensuring no loss of interest for the investor.82 / 100What is the primary role of a ‘Clearing Corporation’ (CC)? a) To provide a platform for trading b) To act as a central counterparty and guarantee settlement c) To give investment advice d) To regulate the listed companies Explanation:The CC ensures that every buyer gets their shares and every seller gets their money, even if one party defaults. It effectively steps in as the “buyer to every seller” and “seller to every buyer.”83 / 100The ‘RFQ’ platform is used for negotiated trades in corporate bonds. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The Request for Quote (RFQ) platform is an electronic system where institutional investors can request quotes and negotiate trades in corporate bonds, bringing transparency to a traditionally opaque market.84 / 100What is ‘Bid-Ask Spread’? a) The total profit of a broker b) The difference between the highest buy price and lowest sell price c) The time taken to settle a trade d) The tax on dividends Explanation:A narrow spread indicates a highly liquid market where the cost of transacting is low. A wide spread suggests that it might be difficult or expensive to buy or sell the security quickly.85 / 100Stock exchanges must have a ‘Business Continuity Plan’ (BCP) and ‘Disaster Recovery Site’ (DRS). (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:To ensure that trading is not interrupted by technical failures, fires, or cyberattacks, MIIs must have a secondary site (DRS) that can take over operations immediately to maintain data integrity.86 / 100What is ‘Direct Market Access’ (DMA)? a) Trading without an internet connection b) A facility for institutional investors to place orders directly into the exchange's order book c) Buying shares directly from the company office d) A special discount for new investors Explanation:DMA allows large institutions (like Mutual Funds) to use their own algorithms and systems to send orders directly to the exchange, bypassing the broker’s manual intervention, though the broker still remains responsible for risk management.87 / 100Market Infrastructure Institutions (MIIs) include Stock Exchanges, Clearing Corporations, and Depositories. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:These entities provide the “infrastructure” for the market. They are subject to high regulatory standards and must have various oversight committees (like Risk Management and Technology) to ensure smooth functioning.88 / 100What is a ‘Block Deal’? a) A trade that is blocked by the regulator b) A large trade (minimum Rs.5 crore or 5 lakh shares) executed in a separate window c) Trading in blocks of gold d) A trade that happens after the market closes Explanation:Block deals are large transactions between two parties that are executed in a special 15-minute window to ensure they don’t cause sudden, massive price swings in the normal retail market.89 / 100‘Circuit Breakers’ are used to halt trading across the entire market if the index moves too much. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Unlike individual “circuit filters” for stocks, circuit breakers apply to the whole market (e.g., Sensex or Nifty). They give the market a “cooling-off period” to prevent panic during extreme volatility.90 / 100What is the ‘Settlement Risk’? a) The risk that the price will change b) The risk that one party will fail to deliver securities or money after the trade c) The risk of a bank going bankrupt d) The risk of losing the share certificate Explanation:Settlement risk is the danger that you pay for shares but don’t receive them, or you sell shares but don’t get the money. Modern clearing corporations eliminate this risk by acting as the central counterparty.91 / 100Institutional investors use ‘Custodial Participant’ (CP) codes for settlement. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:Institutions have their trades cleared and settled by a specialized ‘Custodian’ (usually a bank) rather than their stockbroker. The CP code helps the exchange identify which custodian is responsible for that specific trade.92 / 100What is the minimum investment for a ‘Specialized Investment Fund’ (SIF)? a) Rs.5,000 b) Rs.1,00,000 c) Rs.10,00,000 d) Rs.1 crore Explanation:SIFs are a new category of sophisticated mutual funds. Because they use complex strategies, they require a higher minimum investment of Rs.10 lakhs to ensure only informed or wealthy investors participate.93 / 100Mutual funds must allot units within 5 business days of the NFO closing. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:SEBI mandates strict timelines for investor service. Once the New Fund Offer (NFO) period ends, the AMC must finalize the allotment and credit the units to the investors’ accounts within 5 working days.94 / 100Which document contains the ‘Statement of Additional Information’ (SAI)? a) Only the SID b) A separate statutory document containing info about the AMC/Fund c) The investor's passbook d) The monthly fact sheet 95 / 100The ‘Association of Mutual Funds in India’ (AMFI) is the statutory regulator for funds. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:SEBI is the statutory regulator. AMFI is an industry body (Self-Regulatory Organization) that recommends best practices and sets the code of conduct for AMCs and distributors.96 / 100What is ‘Active Investing’ in mutual funds? a) Investing in an index like Nifty 50 b) A strategy where the manager picks stocks to try and beat the benchmark c) Investing only in new companies d) Checking your portfolio every day Explanation:In active funds, the manager uses research and analysis to select specific securities they believe will outperform the market. This is the opposite of “passive investing” (index funds/ETFs).97 / 100Dividends and redemption proceeds must be sent within 15 days and 10 working days respectively. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:SEBI has set these strict deadlines to protect investor liquidity. Failure to meet these timelines can lead to the AMC having to pay interest to the investor for the delay.98 / 100What is ‘Rupee Cost Averaging’? a) Converting Rupees into Dollars b) Buying more units when prices are low and fewer when prices are high via SIP c) The cost of printing currency d) A way to avoid all market risks Explanation:Since an SIP involves a fixed investment amount, it automatically buys more units during market dips. Over time, this lowers the average cost per unit for the investor, making the investment less sensitive to market timing.99 / 100An ‘Investor Charter’ for Mutual Funds must be displayed on the AMC website. (True/False) a) True b) False Explanation:The Investor Charter is a document issued by SEBI that details the services provided by mutual funds, the rights of investors, and the timelines for grievance redressal.100 / 100What is a ‘Liquid Fund’? a) A fund that only invests in water companies b) A debt fund investing in very short-term instruments (up to 91 days) c) A fund that can be sold for cash in 1 minute d) A fund with no exit load after 1 day Explanation:Liquid funds are used for parking surplus cash for very short periods. They are considered low-risk as they invest in highquality debt instruments that mature in less than 3 months.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit