NISM Series XXI-B Portfolio Managers Cert. Mock Test -3/50 NISM Series XXI-B Portfolio Managers Cert. Mock Test -3 1 / 50Mr. SUMIT has invested money in financial instruments at various places. He now wants to invest in a PMS. Identify which of these statements is/are true with respect to the process of KYC verification? a) Although the KYC of Mr. SUMIT has been done, the PMS can ask for additional documents b) As the KYC of Mr. SUMIT has been done, the PMS cannot ask for any more documents c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:As the KYC of Mr. SUMIT has been done, the PMS cannot ask for any more documents2 / 50Which of these is/are characteristics of Fusion Investing?A. In fusion investing, the portfolios are created based on Cognitive BiasesB. In fusion investing, the final selection of stocks is as per the dynamics of the marketC. In fusion investing, stocks are selected based on fundamental analysis a) Only A and B b) Only B and C c) Only A and C d) None of the above Explanation:Fusion Investing integrates traditional and behavioral paradigms to create investment strategies. It attempts to combine fundamental analysis with behavioral finance. On one hand, the fundamental style of investing suggests that stock price is the discounted value of future cash flows.Further, all the company-related information is fully reflected in the stock price. on the other hand, we observe volatile stock prices in the short-term, which shows that short-term price is influenced by the collective behavior of investors or traders.Fusion investing, therefore, combines the value-growth phenomenon from fundamental investing and the momentum effect from behavioral finance. (Cognitive errors are statistical, information-processing or memory errors that cause a person to deviate from rational behavior.)3 / 50Identify the TRUE statement with respect to the Security Market Line (SML).A. The SML is the CAPM version of the Capital market lineB. Securities that are undervalued will always plot below the SML. a) Both A and B are true b) Only A is true c) Only B is true d) None of the above Explanation:The securities market line (SML) is the graphical form of the Capital asset pricing model (CAPM). SML graphically depicts the relationship between risk and estimated rate of return. In equilibrium, all assets and all portfolios of assets should be ploted on the SML. The expected rate of return of the security too can be plotted, and undervalued/overvalued/fairly valued security can be identified. Any security with an estimated return that plots above the SML is undervalued. Any security with an estimated return that plots below the SML is over-valued.4 / 50In a Callable bond, the _________ has the right to prepay the bond on specified dates before maturity. a) Issuer b) Investor c) Both 1 and 2 must jointly agree d) None of the above Explanation:In a Callable bond, the issuer ie. who has issued the secutities/bonds has the right to prepay the bond on specified dates before maturity. This generally happens when interest rates fall in the economy. The issuer will repay the money to investors and then can issue new bonds at a lower interest rate and thus save on interest costs.5 / 50Which of the following statement is NOT True? a) Listed equity pose more complications in rebalancing than Illiquid assets like private equity, or direct real estate b) Different assets involve different costs of transactions c) International equity has higher transaction costs than domestic equity d) None of the above Explanation:Listed equity pose LESS complications in rebalancing as there is high liquidity of the same in secondary markets plus efficient price discovery6 / 50Identify the true statement with respect to inclusion criteria for BSE SENSEX. a) BSE Sensex can have more than 30 stocks on the index b) The stock to be included in the index should have traded for at least 252 days in a year c) The stocks are drawn from the list of BSE 500 d) Only one of the multiple classes of shares of a company is selected Explanation:Stocks in the eligible universe must satisfy the following eligibility factors in order to be considered for index (BSE Sensex) inclusion-The index is derived from the constituents of the S&P BSE 100.-The stock must have traded on every trading day at BSE during the six month reference period-The number of companies in the index remains fixed at 30-Multiple Share Classes.DVRs satisfying the above eligibility criteria are aggregated with the company’s common stock and index construction is done based on the aggregated company data. (This means only one of the various classes of shares of a company is selected)7 / 50When should the PMS provider give the disclosure document to the client? a) The disclosure document is uploaded on the PMS website and it need not be given to the client as the client can download it anytime b) It has to be given one week (7 days) before the agreement is signed c) It has to be given 2 days before the agreement is signed d) It has to be given along with the account opening form before signing the agreement Explanation:SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulation 2020 requires that the disclosure document is to be given to the prospective client along with the account opening form prior to signing the agreement.8 / 50‘Future price of equity shares depends on past prices’. This statement is in contradiction to __________. a) Momentum investing b) Random Walk Model c) Anchoring bias d) Both Anchoring bias and Momentum investing Explanation:In the Random Walk Theory – Weak-form of efficiency assumes that current stock prices fully reflect all historical information such as historical sequence of prices, rates of return, trading volume data etc. This implies that the current prices are completely independent of the past prices. Hence under the weak form of efficiency the investors would gain little from technical analysis and studying the past prices to predict future prices.9 / 50What are Multi Factor Models used for? a) Unsystematic risk diversification b) Market Beta estimation c) Attribution analysis d) All of the above Explanation:Multi Factor Models are helpful not only in portfolio creation, but also helps in: • Attribution analysis of the portfolio , • Risk analysis of the portfolios, and • Decision making while launching new products. Multi-factor models perform granular risk and return attribution on actively managed portfolios.10 / 50Mrs. Sharma has appointed M/s. MoneySure Enterprises as her PMS and deposited the required amount with them. However, the PMS did not invest this money for three months and gave this money on a temporary basis to a research firm because the PMS received benefits from this research firm. Interest has been received by the PMS on the amount given to the research firm. To whom does this interest belong and your comments on this? a) The interest income belongs to the Portfolio Manager as it is not an income from an investment b) The interest income belongs to the client and as this action was not approved, it has to be reported to the relevant authorities c) The interest income belongs to from the client and the action of PMS is acceptable because the PMS is of a discretionary style d) The interest income belongs to the PMS and this income can be adjusted against outsourced service charges Explanation:As per SEBI rules and code of conduct for Portfolio Managers –The portfolio manager shall not derive any direct or indirect benefit out of client’s funds or securities.The money or securities accepted by the portfolio manager shall not be invested or managed by the portfolio manager except in terms of the agreement between the portfolio manager and the client.The portfolio manager shall not deploy the clients’ funds in bill discounting, badla financing or for the purpose of lending or placement with corporate or non-corporate bodies.The money received by a portfolio manager from a client for an investment purpose should be deployed by the portfolio manager as soon as possible for that purpose and money due and payable to a client should be paid forthwith.11 / 50A group of individuals want to invest Rs. 1 crore in a PMS for a period of 6 months only. Are they eligible to invest in a PMS?A. They are eligible to invest if they form themselves as ‘Association of Persons’B. They are not eligible to invest as the minimum period of investment in a PMS is three years. a) Only A is correct b) Only B is correct c) Both A and B are correct d) Neither A nor B are correct Explanation:A Group of individuals coming together with a common purpose is called the Association of Persons and it is eligible to invest in a PMS. No minimum contract period with respect to PMS has been stated in the SEBI guidelines.12 / 50________ is not considered as a cost of rebalancing. a) Brokerage b) Equity research c) Losses because of misalignment of allocation d) Tax on capital gains Explanation:There are two types of cost associated with rebalancing of a portfolio – transaction cost and tax cost. Transaction costs are the time and money costs like research cost, brokerage etc., for buying and selling securities.While rebalancing, the portfolio managers may sell the appreciated assets and buy the depreciated asset with a view to restoring the desired asset mix. the Sale of an appreciated asset attracts tax liabilities and hence it is a cost of rebalancing the portfolio.Loss due to misalignment of allocation is not a rebalancing cost.13 / 50‘It is not possible to achieve the strongest form of efficiency of a market’ – Why? a) As the financial statements reporting by companies have at least a three months time lag b) As the big market operators never reveal the information behind their trades c) Because common investors are unable to decipher corporate information d) Because the insider information is not available and insider trading is prohibited Explanation:The strong-form Efficient Market Hypothesis states that prices reflect not just historical and current publicly available information, but insider information, too. This is not always possible as in well regulated markets inside information is generally not available and used. Also strong laws prohibit trading based on inside information.14 / 50How can the Operational Risk in constituent companies be managed in portfolio investments? a) Beta stocks have to be selected for investments b) Investments have to be diversified across companies and industries c) Buying a reinsurance policy d) Using derivatives to hedge the portfolio Explanation:Operational risk is the risk of potential losses due to inadequate or failed policies, processes, systems and people. Employee errors, criminal activity such as fraud, and physical events are among the factors that can trigger operational risk in companies. This risk can be reduced by diversifying across numerous companies and industries.15 / 50From the below given three options, identify which information has to be informed to the investors of debt portfolios?A. The details of the commission paid to the distributorsB. The portfolio managers perception of any default riskC. The details of coupons collected from the various bonds in the portfolio a) Only A and B b) Only A and C c) Only B and C d) All A, B and C Explanation:As per SEBI rules – The portfolio manager shall furnish periodically a report to the client, and such report shall contain the following details, namely :– Details of risk foreseen by the portfolio manager and the risk relating to the securities recommended by the portfolio manager for investment or disinvestment; (f) default in payment of coupons or any other default in payments in the underlying debt security and downgrading to default rating by the rating agencies, if any– Details of commission paid to distributor(s) for the particular client– Beneficial interest received during that period in the form of interest, dividend, bonus shares, rights shares, etc16 / 50Identify which of these can be a probable factor in a Multi-factor model of asset returns? a) Gold Prices b) GDP growth c) Priority sector lending by RBI d) Industry Demand Supply Gap Explanation:Any macro-economic forecast should include estimates of all of the important economic numbers, including gross domestic product, inflation rates, interest rates, unemployment etc.17 / 50In which bias does an investor choose an alternative that is presented as having a large positive outcome than the same alternative when presented as having a small negative outcome? a) Framing Bias b) Mental Accounting Bias c) Endowment Bias d) Loss Aversion Bias Explanation:Framing Bias is an information-processing bias in which a person answers a question differently based on the way in which it is asked (framed).An investor’s choices will be influenced by how information or facts are presented. Different types of framing approaches have been identified, including risky choice framing (e.g. the risk of losing 10 out of 100 lives vs the opportunity to save 90 out of 100 lives), and attribute framing (e.g. product that is 0% fat vs 100% fat free). As can be seen, the outcomes of both the choices in both the scenarios are the same, however people mostly opted for second options in both the scenarios.18 / 50While making an investment decision, why do most investors still depend on ‘Thumb Rules’ even though they have access to detailed financial information of companies?A. Inability to understand and analyze the detailed financial informationB. Absence of perceived additional profits due to analysis of the financial information a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A and B Explanation:Most investors have limited (i) time and/or (ii) information and/or (iii) ability to comprehend complex information at the time of decision making. Similarly, when selecting one of the many options that requirs meticulous analysis incorporating all the available information, people get confused. They settle with an option (possibly sub-optimal), which seems to be satisfactory and sufficient based on quick analysis governed by ‘thumb rules’. In other words, instead of optimizing as suggested by theories in finance, investors “satisfice” (seemingly satisfactory and sufficient).Depending on ‘thumb rules’ instead of doing exact calculations, is an example of cognitive bias. People are less likely to make cognitive errors if they remain vigilant. Unlike emotional bias, cognitive biases can be considered as a short-cut approach to decision making where one avoids going through the pains of analyzing and evaluating options. And at times, can be factually incorrect.19 / 50In which of the following assets should an investor invest if his/her objective is to get Regular Income?A. Equity shares paying regular dividendB. Commercial PapersC. Coupon paying bonds a) Both A and B b) Both A and C c) Both B and C d) All A, B and C Explanation:If regular income is the investment objective, funds will be invested in asset classes generating periodical income like dividend paying stocks, interest paying bond or/and rent paying realty. (Commercial paper is a short-term debt instrument issued by companies to raise funds generally for a time period of up to one year)20 / 50With respect to Overconfidence Bias, which of these dangers are quite dominant in it?A. The danger of portfolio concentrationB. The danger of confusing the bull market with investment expertiseC. The danger of drifting away from Risk-Return trade off a) Only A and B b) Only A and C c) Only B and C d) All A, B and C Explanation:Overconfidence Bias is a bias in which people demonstrate unwarranted larger faith in their own intuitive reasoning, judgments and cognitive abilities. People confuse their brains with bull markets and believe that they have superior investment knowledge. Even the feedback loop in such cases further fuel the overconfidence bias and investor easily gets swayed from risk-return trade off principles. Some of the observed behaviour of overconfidence bias are visible in portfolio concentration, sector or country bias, excessive trading, sticking with loss making stocks in sectors which investor believes to know more etc.21 / 50According to the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, which information with respect to related parties to the Designated Person is NOT required to be disclosed? a) Permanent Account Number (PAN) b) Saving's Bank Account Number c) Aadhaar Number d) Mobile Number Explanation:Schedule C of the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations specifies the minimum standards for the code of conduct for intermediaries and fiduciaries to regulate, monitor and report trading by Designated Persons. It mentions that – All designated persons shall be required to disclose their name and Permanent Account Number or any other identifier authorized by law of the following to the intermediary or fiduciary on an annual basis and as and when the information changes:a) immediate relativesb) persons with whom such designated person(s) shares a material financial relationshipc) Phone, mobile, and cell numbers which are used by them In addition, names of educational institutions from which designated persons have graduated and names of their past employers shall also be disclosed on a one time basis. (Saving Bank account number is not mentioned to be disclosed.)22 / 50In an active bond management strategy, the Portfolio Manager tries to forecasts the ____________. a) Yield spreads b) Monetary policy c) Corporate profitability d) All of the above Explanation:Bond management strategy can be active or passive. In Passive strategies like Buy and Hold, the investor buys and holds the investment till maturity. In an Active Bond Management strategy, a portfolio manager takes a view on future possibilities in terms of either interest rate movement (depending on monetary policies of RBI) yield spreads or credit quality (depends on the profitability of the company for corporate bonds) and accordingly adjusts the portfolio whenever it is appropriate. Here, the portfolio manager does not accept the status quo as given and proactively takes steps to maximize returns based on her assessment of future direction.23 / 50When is a PMS provider required to disclose information to SEBI? A. PMS provider has to provide information when SEBI wants to know the details of the clients whose funds are being managed B. PMS provider has to provide information when there is a change in the networth of the PMS from the date of registration a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B Explanation:A portfolio manager shall disclose to SEBI as and when required the following information namely:(i) particulars regarding the management of a portfolio;(ii) any change in the information or particulars previously furnished, which have a bearing on the certificate granted to him;(iii) the names of the clients whose portfolio he has managed; (iv) particulars relating to the net worth requirement.24 / 50A portfolio manager constructs a portfolio consisting of securities from three major sectors of the economy and gave equal weightage to each sector. After a year, he observed that the weights were disturbed with two sectors gaining weight and one sector losing weight. The portfolio manager decides to rebalance the portfolio as per the original weights. Which strategy of rebalancing has the portfolio manager used? a) Indexing Strategy b) Constant Mix Strategy c) Constant Beta Strategy d) Constant Force Strategy Explanation:Constant mix strategy is basically a rebalancing process. It is a “do something” strategy. Once the strategic asset allocation is decided, periodic trading will take place to reset the asset mix to avoid any drift. The benefit of a constant mix strategy is that it helps in maintaining market risk exposures.25 / 50There are three possible scenarios in a stock market – Normal, Boom and Recession. According to an investor – Mr. Rohit, there is a 70% probability of a Normal scenario. Also the odds of a Boom are 2 times than that of a Recession. Calculate the probabilities of Boom and Recession scenarios. a) Boom 25% , Recession 15% b) Boom 16.5% , Recession 25% c) Boom 15% , Recession 5% d) Boom 20% , Recession 10% Explanation:Lets assume the probability of Recession as ‘x’. The probability of a Boom is 2 times of a Recession, so it will be 2x.The total probability is always 100%. Out of this, the probability of a Normal scenario is 70%Therefore 70 + x + 2x = 100x + 2x = 100 – 703x = 30 x = 30/3 = 10Therefore the probability of Recession is 10Probability of Boom is 2x = 10 x 2 = 20Thus the probability of a Boom is 20% and a Recession is 10%26 / 50Security P covariates with the market index to the tune of 12. The variance of the market index is 7. Security Q with a beta of 0.65 is brought in to make a two security portfolio with equal (50:50) weightage. Calculate the Portfolio Beta? a) 1.66 b) 1.18 c) 1.03 d) 0.74 Explanation:Beta of Security P = Covariance of Market Return and Security Return/Variance of Market Return = 12 / 7 = 1.71Therefore Beta of P = 1.71Beta of Q is given as 0.6Now since, both securities in the portfolio have an equal weight: Beta of Portfolio = (1.71 + 0.65) / 2 = 1.1827 / 50What is an Index Divisor? a) Its the simple average price of all index stocks at the inception time scaled to 100 b) Its the market capitalization of the all the index stocks at the inception time scaled to 1000 c) Its the value weighted average prices of all the index stocks at the inception time scaled to 100 d) Its an arbitrary value chosen at the inception time bringing the index to a desired value Explanation:Index Divisor is an arbitrary number chosen at inception. It is initially chosen in such a way that the index has a convenient initial value, such as 100 or 1,000. The index provider adjusts the value of the divisor as and when necessary to avoid changes in the index value that are unrelated to changes in the prices of its constituent securities.28 / 50Identify which type of index will be he most appropriate benchmark when the objective of investment is to reduce or mitigate the inflation risk? a) G-Sec Index b) Floating interest rate index c) Low duration index d) High credit quality index Explanation:If the objective is Inflation Risk Mitigation, the Floating Interest Rate Benchmark is the relevant benchmark.29 / 50Identify the TRUE statement with respect to the Security Market Line (SML)? A. The SML is the CAPM version of Capital market line B. Securities which are undervalued will always plot below the SML a) Both A and B are true b) Only A is true c) Only B is true d) None of the above Explanation:The Securities market line (SML) is the graphical form of the Capital asset pricing model (CAPM). SML graphically depicts the relationship between risk and estimated rate of return. In equilibrium, all assets and all portfolios of assets should be ploted on the SML. The expected rate of return of the security too can be plotted, and undervalued/overvalued/fairly valued security can be identified. Any security with an estimated return that plots above the SML is undervalued. Any security with an estimated return that plots below the SML is over-valued.30 / 50An important part of the agreement between the client and PMS is the ‘Investment Approach’. What does the investment approach define? a) It defines the nature of securities the PMS can invest in b) It defines the universe of instruments from which the PMS has to choose for the client’s fund management c) It defines the nature of companies in which the portfolio manager can invest d) All of the above Explanation:The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client includes the ‘investment approach’. An investment approach is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer.The agreement also includes the areas of investment and restrictions, if any, imposed by the client with regard to the investment in a particular company or industry. Thus, the universe of securities for the purpose of investments is well defined in the agreement.31 / 50What does it mean by – ‘Investing in Floaters’ as an active bond management strategy? a) Investing in Floaters means buying a bond with a fluctuating duration b) Investing in Floaters means investing in those bonds that have free float in terms of availability to trade c) Investing in Floaters means investing in an Index linked bond d) Investing in Floaters means investing in bonds whose coupon is reset at regular intervals Explanation:Investing in floaters provides protection from large movement of interest rates. A floater bond’s coupon is reset on periodic intervals as and when the underlying index is reset (for example the floater bond’s coupon is linked to the quarterly GDP growth rate or quarterly wholesale inflation index etc.) Therefore, the maximum duration of a floater bond at any given point in time is only the remaining time when the underlying index is reset, even though the maturity of the floater bond may be much longer.32 / 50A reputed PMS is following the Buy and Hold strategy. In this he has allocated 75% of the funds in low volatile stocks like large blue-chip companies and 25% of the funds in high volatile stocks like mid and small cap companies. With the passage of time, what type of re-balancing should be done by the PMS? a) The PMS should regularly sell the dynamic proportion and buy the stable proportion b) The PMS should alter the Beta of the risky component of the portfolio c) The PMS should do nothing as its a Buy and Hold strategy d) The PMS should book the profit in the dynamic component and utilize it for other purposes Explanation:Buy and hold is a passive strategy of deciding the strategic asset allocation mix and then going with the flow i.e. doing nothing about it subsequently. With this do nothing strategy the asset mix drifts significantly over a period of time from what was originally decided. In this kind of strategy, some investment is made in safe assets to provide a floor value as the investments made in safe assets do not fluctuate much. The amount invested in the risky assets is to provide the appreciation. The portfolio value becomes a function of the performance of risky assets and there would be no limit on the upside potential of the portfolio.33 / 50Identify the true statement with respect to inclusion criteria for BSE SENSEX. a) BSE Sensex can have more than 30 stocks on the index b) The stock to be included in the index should have traded for at least 252 days in a year c) The stocks are drawn from the list of BSE 500 d) Only one of the multiple classes of shares of a company is selected Explanation:Stocks in the eligible universe must satisfy the following eligibility factors in order to be considered for index (BSE Sensex) inclusion-The index is derived from the constituents of the S&P BSE 100.-The stock must have traded on every trading day at BSE during the six month reference period-The number of companies in the index remains fixed at 30-Multiple Share Classes. DVRs satisfying the above eligibility criteria are aggregated with the company’s common stock and index construction is done based on the aggregated company data.(This means only one of the various classes of a shares of a company is selected)34 / 50In India, the Central Government issues ________. a) Treasury bills b) Dated securities c) Both of the above d) Certificate of deposits Explanation:In India, the Central Government issues both, treasury bills and bonds or dated securities. Certificate of deposits are issued by Banks and Financial institutions.35 / 50Under relative valuation techniques, the value of a stock is estimated based on its current price relative to variables considered to be significant in valuation, such as _________. a) cash flow b) Earnings c) Book value d) All of the above Explanation:Relative valuation is conducted by identifying comparable firms and then obtaining market values of equity of these firms. These values are then converted into standardized values which are in the form of multiples, with respect to any chosen metric of the company’s financials, such as earnings, cash flow, book values or sales. These multiples are then applied to the respective financials of the target company for valuation. Based on the value arrived and the market price of the equity shares of the company it is decided whether it is over-valued or under-valued.36 / 50The first step in the investment process is the development of _______. a) Statement of cash needs b) Objective statement c) Investment Policy statement d) Financial statement Explanation:The Development of an Investment Policy Statement (IPS) is the key step in the process of portfolio management. IPS is the road map that guides the investment process. All investment decisions are based on IPS considering investors’ goals and objectives, risk appetite, etc.37 / 50While managing an equity portfolio, a portfolio manager aims to take a long position when the market is rising and takes a short position when the market is declining. This strategy is referred to as: a) Value investing b) Momentum investing c) Growth investing d) Factor based investing Explanation:When a Portfolio manager’s investment strategy is based on the continuation of an ongoing market trend, it is referred to as Momentum Investing. Portfolio managers aim at taking a long position in a rising trend, and a short position in a declining trend.38 / 50An __________ is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities. a) investment objectives b) investment approach c) investment statement d) investment profile Explanation:The agreement between the portfolio manager and the client includes the investment approach. An investment approach is a broad outlay of the type of securities and permissible instruments to be invested in by the portfolio manager for the customer, taking into account factors specific to clients and securities. The agreement also includes the areas of investment and restrictions, if any, imposed by the client with regard to the investment in a particular company or industry. Thus, the universe of securities for the purpose of investments is well defined in the agreement.39 / 50Government securities carry practically no risk of ________ and, hence are called risk-free or gilt-edged instruments. a) Negotiability b) Tradability c) Liquidity d) Default Explanation:A Government Security (G-Sec) is a tradeable instrument issued by the Central Government or the State Governments. G-Secs carry practically no risk of default as they are backed by the Government of the land and hence, are called risk-free gilt-edged instruments.40 / 50______ represents ownership in a company that entitles its holders to participate in its profits and the right to vote on the company’s affairs. a) Equity Shares b) Bonds c) Commercial Papers d) All of the above Explanation:Equity Shares represent ownership in a company that entitles its holders to a share in profits and the right to vote on the company’s affairs. Equity shareholders are residual owners of the firm’s profit after other contractual claims on the firm are satisfied and have the ultimate control over how the firm is operated.41 / 50A criticism of a value weighted index is that – a) Small companies have a large influence on the index b) Large companies have small influence on the index c) Large companies have a disproportionate influence on the index d) They are not useful for the OTC market Explanation:A value-weighted index is generated by taking into consideration the market capitalization of the securities in the index. In a value-weighted index, a specified percentage change in the value of a large company has a greater impact than a comparable percentage change for a small company as the weight of individual stocks in the index is determined by the market value of the stocks.42 / 50Record of transactions to be maintained under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act includes Cash transactions of the value of more than ________. a) Rs.1 crore b) Rs.25 lakh c) Rs.20 lakh d) Rs.10 lakh Explanation:The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) forms the core of the legal framework put in place in India to combat money laundering. Under this, record has to be maintained for all cash transactions of the value of more than Rs. 10 lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency etc.43 / 50The Commission received from business forms part of the income from ______. a) Capital Gains b) Other sources c) Business and profession d) Salary Explanation:Commission income falls under the residuary head of income i.e. Income from Other Sources (IFOS). However, if a person is engaged in the commission business, then the income from the commission business shall be offered to tax under the head “Income from business and profession” and not under IFOS.44 / 50Which of the following is a step in the portfolio management process? a) Study current financial and economic conditions b) Develop a policy statement c) Construct the portfolio d) All of the above Explanation:Steps in Portfolio Management Process: 1. The first step in the process of portfolio management is the development of a policy statement for the portfolio. 2. The second step involves the study of current financial conditions and forecasting future trends 3. The third step is the construction of a portfolio after taking into consideration policy statements and financial markets forecast. 4. The fourth step in the portfolio management process is performance measurement & evaluation.45 / 50As a portfolio manager you are evaluating adding another security to the portfolio. The correlations of the 4 alternatives with the existing portfolio are given below. Which security would you choose if your objective is the highest level of risk diversification? a) 0 b) 0.25 c) -0.35 d) -0.85 Explanation:With a low (less than 1 correlation) or negative correlation it is possible to derive portfolios that have lower risk than either of the assets. This is the essence of diversification. As long as the correlation is less than perfect 1, benefits of diversification occur. the Lower the correlation, the higher the benefits of diversification. Therefore, in the above example, the highest negative correlation of – 0.85 will give the highest benefits of diversification.46 / 50The counterparty risk in a futures contract is mitigated primarily through _________. a) the functions of the clearing corporation b) the limits on positions and trading volumes c) col-lateralisation by both parties d) settlement on a gross basis between two parties Explanation:Counterparty risk is the risk of an economic loss from the failure of a counterparty to fulfil its contractual obligation. The Exchange becomes a counterparty to both the buyer and seller of a futures contract through a clearing house. The clearing corporation associated with the exchange guarantees the settlement of these trades. The trades executed on the exchange are settled through a clearing corporation, which acts as a counterparty and guarantees the settlement of the trades to both buyers and sellers.47 / 50Which of the following is a limitation of the historical simulation method while developing a model to measure investment risks?i. The past may not repeat itself.ii. Distribution is assumed to be normal (bell-shaped).iii. Mean-variance estimates can be biased a) I only b) I and II only c) I and III only d) I, II and III Explanation:In the historical simulation method, the portfolio’s return is simulated assuming the same composition is in existence for a long period, say 5 years. The daily return (or weekly or monthly return) is calculated. Such returns are now arranged in descending or ascending order. And then finally 1%, 5%, 10% or any other value, for which VaR is needed, is calculated using the percentile approach. The main limitation of this method is that the past may not repeat itself leading to unreliable simulation.48 / 50For a person to be qualified as a NRI, he must have stayed outside India for more than ______ days in a previous financial year. a) 151 b) 182 c) 280 d) 366 Explanation:An individual is treated as a resident in India if he stays in India for: (a) 182 days or more during the relevant previous year; or (b) 60 days or more (but less than 182 days) during the relevant previous year and for 365 days or more in the last 4 years. Therefore, if an individual stays outside India for more than 182 days, the person will be qualified as an NRI.49 / 50What impact does a stock split have on a price-weighted series? a) Divisor remains the same, index will change b) The Index remains the same, divisor will change. c) The Index and divisor will both remain the same. d) The Index and divisor will both change. Explanation:When a stock splits, the divisor is so adjusted to keep the level of the index as same. The adjusted divisor ensures that the value of the index is not fluctuate by these actions and new value for the index is the same as it would have been without the split.50 / 50The weak form of the efficient market hypothesis (EMH) states that ______________. a) Successive price changes are independent b) Successive price changes are dependent c) Successive price changes are biased d) Successive price changes depend on trading volume Explanation:The weak-form EMH assumes that current stock prices fully reflect all security market information. Technical analysts use technical indicators using past price/rerun/volume data to predict future price movement. If the market is in a weak form of efficiency, then analyzing past information will not lead to the identification of future price movements as past returns are not congruent with future returns.Therefore, one should gain little from using any trading rule that indicates that one should buy or sell a security based on past rates of return or any other past security market data. EMH renders technical analysis completely irrelevant for superior returns.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit