NISM Series XXI-B Portfolio Managers Cert. - Full-Length Test/100 NISM Series XXI-B Portfolio Managers Cert. – Full-Length Test 1 / 100The stipulated time frame for the ‘Designated Person’ to enter into a contra trade in securities as per SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations is ______. a) Greater than 3 months b) Greater than 6 months c) Not less than than 30 days d) Not less than 6 months Explanation:Under SEBI’s (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 (PIT Regulations), companies must include in their internal code of conduct a contra-trade restriction period that cannot be less than six months.This rule ensures that designated persons and their immediate relatives do not engage in short-term trading gains that might be based on unpublished price-sensitive information (UPSI).If a contra trade is executed in violation of this restriction, any resulting profits must be disgorged i.e., forfeited to the SEBI Investor Protection and Education Fund.2 / 100In the US markets, it is some times observed that prices fall in December and rise in January. What is this phenomenon known as ? a) December Effect b) January Effect c) Christmas Effect d) New Year Effect Explanation:JANUARY EFFECT : In the US market, it is observed that investors tend to engage in tax selling toward the end of the year to book losses on stocks that have declined and buy back the same stocks or to similar stocks after the new year. This leads to downward pressure on stock prices towards the end of November and December and positive pressure in early January3 / 100The maximum value that Information Coefficient can take is ______. a) 0 b) 1 c) -1 d) Positive Infinity Explanation:Information Coefficient is the measure of manager’s skill in terms of accurately predicting the future outcome. This can be for any of the variables such as financial performance of company, macro-economic data prediction, stock price movement, P/E expansion or contraction, business cycles etc.Information Coefficient is obtained by finding the correlation between expected and actual outcome of strategies. So, information coefficient is essentially correlation coefficient, which like any other correlation, ranges from -1 to +1.4 / 100Identify the FALSE statement with respect to a Futures Contract. a) A Future contract is an exchange traded forward contract b) A Future contract is a forward contract with mitigated counterparty risk c) A Future contract is standardized forward contract d) A Future contract is a forward contract with same payoffs Explanation:Futures are standardised forward contracts that are traded on an exchange. The payoffs are different in futures and forwards contract due to various margins / costs involved.5 / 100Mr. Hakim is an HNI investor. Is it true that he can invest in a PMS only through an authorised PMS Distributor? a) The statement is FALSE because a Portfolio Manager can directly provide his services to an HNI investor but in the records, the client is allocated to a distributor b) The statement is FALSE because the HNI investor can be on-boarded directly by the PMS without involving a distributor c) The statement is TRUE because this is as per a new modification in the SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulation 2020 d) The statement is TRUE because the Portfolio Manager has to focus only on fund management and not on any other related service Explanation:As per the SEBI circular, Portfolio Managers shall provide an option to clients to be onboarded directly, without intermediation of persons engaged in distribution services. Portfolio Managers shall prominently disclose in its disclosure documents, marketing material and on its website, about the option for direct on-boarding. At the time of on-boarding of clients directly, no charges except statutory charges shall be levied.6 / 100_________ is an approved form of deployment of client’s funds by PMS. a) Bill Discounting b) Factoring c) Investment with Corporate Bodie d) Investment in Mutual Funds Explanation:A portfolio manager can invest in units of mutual funds through direct plan.The portfolio manager cannot deploy the clients’ funds in bill discounting, badla financing or for the purpose of lending or placement with corporate or non-corporate bodies.7 / 100The document(s) which is/are required to claim benefits under Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements is/ are _______. a) Form 10-F b) Documents of citizenship c) Tax Residency Certificate d) All of the above Explanation:Non-residents who are eligible to avail the benefits of the relevant Double Taxation Avoidance Agreements (DTAA) may opt to be taxed as per such DTAA on its income earned in India to the extent that they are more beneficial than the provisions of the ITA.The non-residents, however, will be required to obtain a Tax Residency Certificate and also submit a duly completed Form No. 10-F along with supporting documents, to the extent applicable.8 / 100A religious trust wants to invest Rs. 25 lakhs in a PMS. Will it be eligible for it? a) Yes b) No Explanation:A Trust can invest in PMS with a minimum investment of Rs. 50 lacs.9 / 100A Portfolio Manager has to preserve his books of accounts for inspection by SEBI for _____ years. a) 10 b) 5 c) 8 d) 3 Explanation:The portfolio manager is required to preserve the books of account and other records and documents for preceding five accounting years and furnish to SEBI as and when required.10 / 100__________ will not influence the cost of rebalancing a portfolio a) Frequency of rebalancing b) The number of assets in the investors portfolio c) Initial wealth of the investor d) The nature of the asset Explanation:There are two types of cost in rebalancing– transaction cost and tax cost.The transaction costs will be higher if there are more number of assets in a portfolio and if rebalancing is frequently done.Nature of asset – is it liquid or illiquid will also affect the transaction costs. Rebalancing is comparatively easier with relatively more liquid asset like listed equities or government bonds.The initial wealth of the investor has no bearing on the cost of rebalancing.11 / 100To protect his portfolio, a fund manager buys a PUT option of the exact cover by paying a premium of Rs. 75000. Due to a downfall in the market, the value of the portfolio goes down by Rs. 3 lakhs. Calculate the profit / loss due to this hedging strategy. a) Profit of Rs. 300000 b) Profit of Rs. 225000 c) Loss of Rs. 75000 d) Loss of Rs. 300000 Explanation:The fund manager has bought a PUT option which means there will be a gain if the value goes down. The value has gone down by Rs. 3,00,000 which is the gain. However, to buy this put option, a premium of Rs 75,000 was paid. Therefore the Net Gain will be 300000 – 75000 = Rs. 2,2500012 / 100In portfolio management, which type of preparedness has to be done for managing risk like a Pandemic? a) Tail Risk Assessment b) Diversification c) Parametric VaR d) Keep negatively correlated securities in the portfolio Explanation:Managing Risk that cannot be managed – To deal with unforeseen events like a pandamic, one has to rely on preparedness. This includes Scenario Planning;Tail Risk assessment;Stress Testing; andSimulationIf the probability of extreme returns on assets or portfolios is greater than that in a normal distribution or any investor’s model’s distribution, then the investment is said to have tail risk. The difference between the theoretical loss and the actual loss are sometimes large enough to impact investment value significantly.13 / 100How is diversification of risk in an equity portfolio achieved? a) By selecting equity shares whose returns are not so perfectly correlated b) By selecting equity shares companies from different industries c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:The most meaningful way to risk reduction in equity investments is through diversification – both on cross sectional (i.e. across business sectors and industries) as well as on time series basis (i.e. across various time periods). Conceptually, it is achieved due to the relatively less correlated behaviour of various business sectors which underlie each equity investment. The benefits of diversification rests on correlation between investments. Lower the correlation between investments, higher the benefits of diversification i.e. reduction in risk.14 / 100Identify the statement which refers to the term ‘ Net of fee returns.’ a) The Actual returns on portfolio less the investment management fees, transaction costs, carrying interest and any other cost or fee b) The Actual returns on portfolio less the investment management fees and transaction costs c) The Actual returns on portfolio less the taxes and carrying interest d) The Actual returns on portfolio less the transaction costs and model investment management fees Explanation:When presenting ‘net-of-fees’ returns, the PMS firm must disclose:a. If any other fees are deducted in addition to investment management fees and transaction costs.b. If net-of-fees returns are net of any performance-based fees or carried interest.15 / 100Mr. Singh is a fund manager and is planning to invest in two bonds. The maximum investment horizon he has is 12 years. He has finalized to invest 58% of the funds in a bond which has a duration of 15 years. Calculate what should be the duration of the second bond and the amount which has to invested in it? a) 7.85 , 42% b) 7.15 , 42% c) 8.75 , 42% d) 8.50 , 58% Explanation:Since the Manager is investing 58% in on bond, the second bond has to be given a weightage of 42%.Now let’s find the duration of the second bond in which the amount should be invested.Weighted Duration of Portfolio = (Weight of Bond 1 * Duration of Bond 1) + (Weigh of Bond 2 * Duration of Bond 2)The Weighted Duration of Portfolio is the investment horizon = 12 years.12 = (0.58 * 15) + (0.42 * Duration of Bond 2)12 = 8.7 + (0.42 * Duration of Bond 2)(0.42 * Duration of Bond 2) = 12 – 8.7(0.42 * Duration of Bond 2) = 3.3Duration of Bond 2 = 3.3/0.42Duration of Bond 2 = 7.85Thus, a bond with duration of 7.85 needs to be selected.16 / 100A portfolio manager will prefer a financial market which has _____________ . a) Weak form of efficiency b) Strong form efficiency c) Semi-strong form of efficiency d) A portfolio manager will not have any such preference Explanation:Eugene Fama, an American economist, divided the overall Efficient Market Hypothesis (EMH) into three sub hypotheses depending on the information set involved: weak-form EMH; semi strong-form EMH and strong-form EMH.The weak-form EMH assumes that current stock prices fully reflect all security market information. Analysing past information will not lead to identification of future price movements as past returns are not congruent with future returns. Therefore, one should gain little from using any trading rule which indicates that one should buy or sell a security based on past rates of return or any other past security market data. EMH renders technical analysis completely irrelevant for superior returns.Portfolio mangers depend on fundamental analysis for selecting stocks and they do not follow technical analysis. Therefore, they prefer markets with weak form of efficiency.17 / 100When does a portfolio need rebalancing? a) When there are changes in asset returns b) When there are changes in investor risk appetite c) When there are changes in investors investment gains d) All of the above Explanation:Rebalancing is required when the investors’ needs or circumstances change. For individual investors changes in employment, marital status, birth of children may affect the investment goals and objectives and also the amount of money available for investments. Investors liquidity requirements may also undergo changes.Hence, it is desirable that the Investment Policy Statement (IPS) contains well defined rebalancing policy addressing the following issues: (1) adjustments needed in the investors’ target asset classes weights to reflects the changes in the needs, circumstances and risk appetite. (2) the set of rules that guide the process of restoring the portfolio’s original exposures to various asset classes in times of changing capital market expectations.18 / 100Ms. Mahi is a fund manager and she is correct 75% of the times. She is interested to achieve an Information Ratio of 3. Calculate how many forecasts should she make in that given period to achieve this? a) 12 b) 24 c) 36 d) 48 Explanation:We need to find the accuracy of a manager with an information Ratio of 3.Information Ratio = IC * √BreadthIC means Information CoefficientIC formula = (2 * Accuracy) – 1IC = (2 * 75%) – 1IC = 150% – 1IC = 1.5 – 1IC = 50% or 0.5Now to find, the number of forecasts, we need to find the breadth;Information Ratio = IC * √Breadth3 = 0.5 * √Breadth√Breadth = 3/0.5√Breadth = 6Squaring both sides, we get;Breadth = 36Thus, the manager is allowed to take 36 decisions given her accuracy rate in order to maintain an accuracy ratio of 319 / 100___________ as a measure of return is permitted by SEBI for reporting performance of liquid funds and money market funds. a) Effective Annual Return b) Equated Annual Return c) Compounded Annual Growth Rate d) Annualized yield Explanation:As per the Advertisement Guidelines for Mutual Funds by SEBI, the performance of the mutual fund schemes need to be disclosed as follows:In the case of money market schemes or cash and liquid schemes, wherein investors have very short investment horizon, the performance can be advertised by simple annualization of yields if a performance figure is available for at least 7 days, 15 days and 30 days. Further, it should not give an unrealistic or misleading picture about the performance or future performance of the scheme.20 / 100Is it true that Swaps and Swaptions are one and the same?A. Swaps and Swaptions are same as both of them actually result in exchanges of interest and principal in different currenciesB. Swaps and Swaptions are not the same as Swaps are exchanges of interest and principal in different currencies and Swaptions are options to exchange fixed and floating interest rates a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B Explanation:A currency swap is an agreement in which two parties exchange the principal amount of a loan and the interest in one currency for the principal and interest in another currency. In Swaptions, holder of a payer swaption has the right, but not the obligation to enter into an interest rate swap. The option can be for both Fixed or Floating rate payments by the holder of Swaption.21 / 100Mr. Robert has made several foreign currency transactions in a month. Should the related financial institution furnish the information about these transactions as per the Prevention of Money Laundering Act 2002? A. No, as they were made in foreign currency B. Yes, in case they are suspicious C. Yes, if they are cash transactions. a) Both A and B b) Both B and C c) Both A and C Explanation:Provisions of the Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 stipulate that every banking company, financial institution and intermediary shall furnish information of transactions and verify and maintain the records of the identity of all its clients. Such transactions include:– All cash transactions of the value of more than Rs. 10 lakh or its equivalent in foreign currency.– All suspicious transaction whether or not made in cash. For the purpose of suspicious transactions apart from ‘transactions integrally connected’, ‘transactions remotely connected or related’ shall also be considered.22 / 100The annual return of a portfolio is 12% and its standard deviation is 15%. Calculate the 99% 1 day VaR of a portfolio worth Rs. 75 lakhs. Note : 1. Assume 250 days in a year 2. Confidence level statistic at 99 percent confidence interval is 2.33 3. Round off to 2 decimals. a) Rs. – 2.17 lakhs b) Rs. – 1.62 Lakhs c) Rs. 3.25 lakhs d) Rs. – 0.85 lakhs Explanation:To calculate 1 day Var, we need to convert the annual return and annual standard deviation into a daily return and daily standard deviation;Daily Return = Annual Return/250 = 12%/250 = 0.048% (or 0.0048)Daily Standard Deviation = Annual Standard Deviation/√250 = 15%/√250 = 15% / 15.81 = 0.95% (or 0.0095)VaR = Portfolio Value × (Expected Return−Z Score × Volatility)VaR = 75,00,000 * (0.00048 – (2.33) * 0.0095)VaR = 75,00,000 * (0.00048 – (0.022135)VaR = 75,00,000 * (-0.0216)VaR = -1,62,412Thus, the 99% 1 day VaR of the portfolio is -1,62,412 or roughly -1.62 Lakhs23 / 100Three funds X, Y and Z beat their benchmark returns by 4%, 5% and 7% respectively. their excess returns are volatile to the extent of 3%, 5% and 6% respectively. From this data calculate how much did the information ratio of fund X beat that of fund Z. a) 1.7 b) 0.017 c) 0.17 d) 0.0017 Explanation:Information Ratio = Excess Return/Tracking ErrorInformation Ratio of Fund X = 4% / 3% = 1.3333Information Ratio of Fund Z = 7% / 6% = 1.1666Now, to find how much information of X beat that of Z;= Information Ratio of Fund X – Information Ratio of Fund Z= 1.3333 – 1.1666= 0.1667 or 0.1724 / 100Ms. Sudha is an investor and has a risk aversion of 3. A portfolio manger offers her a customised portfolio which will generate a return of 12% p.a. with a standard deviation of 6%. Will Ms. Sudha accept this portfolio for investing in? If she accepts it, what will be the Utility? (Note – The ongoing risk free rate is 7%) a) No , 4.46% b) No , 5.74% c) Yes , 4.46% d) Yes , 5.74% Explanation:Utility scores are assigned to those portfolios for their risk-return profile.The formula for Utility Score is = Expected Return – (0.5 * Aversion Value * Volatility^2)Utility Score = 0.12 – (0.5 * 3 * 0.06^2)Utility Score = 0.12 – (0.5 * 3 * 0.06 * 0.06)Utility Score = 0.12 – (0.0054)Utility Score = 0.1146Excess Utility = 0.1146 – 0.07Excess Utility = 0.0446 i.e 0.0446 x 100 = 4.46%Now, since the utility of the investment is greater than the risk free rate, the investor would accept it.25 / 100A portfolio manager, who is following active strategy, will put forward which of the following arguments regarding Efficiency of Markets? A. Information is not reflected very accurately in the price B. Information is not quickly in the price C. Financial markets are not strongly efficient all the time. a) All A, B and C b) Both A and B c) Both A and C d) Both B and C Explanation:Efficient market is one in which prices always “fully reflect” the most up to date current information. Hence a popular definition of efficient market is one where market price equals fair value of the securities.However, this is not possible all the time and markets are not strongly efficient due to various factors. Also information is not always reflected fully and quickly in the prices. An active fund manager uses this inefficiency to select and buy stocks/assets.26 / 100________ is/are considered as a person for the purpose of levying income Tax. A. Minority Religious Trust B. Non-Profit organization organized as Association of Persons. a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B Explanation:An Association of Person, whether incorporated or not is considered as a ‘person’ under Section 2(31) of the Income Tax Act.A trust is not considered a person.27 / 100Which of these statement is TRUE with respect to volatility in bond prices? a) All other things remaining the same, longer term bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes b) All other things remaining the same, shorter term bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes c) All other things remaining the same, smaller coupon bonds are more sensitive to interest rate changes d) All other things remaining the same, larger coupon bonds are less sensitive to interest rate changes Explanation:Bond price volatility is directly related to term to maturity, longer maturity bonds experience larger price changes for a given change in yields.This is because longer-term bonds have a greater duration than short-term bonds that are closer to maturity and have fewer coupon payments remaining.28 / 100When the objective of the investment is to mitigate the inflation risk, ___________ will be the most relevant benchmark. a) Low duration index b) High credit quality index c) Floating interest rate index d) G-Sec Index Explanation:If the objective is Inflation Risk Mitigation, the Floating Interest Rate Benchmark is the relevant benchmark29 / 100A bond fund manager is expecting a rise in interest rates by about 2% in future. The current Duration of his bond portfolio is 10 years. Identify the response of the fund manager which will reflect a Directional Call strategy. a) Reducing portfolio duration to less than 10 years b) Reducing portfolio duration to less than 12 years c) Increasing Portfolio Duration to more than 10 years d) Increasing portfolio duration to more than 12 years Explanation:Whenever a portfolio manager takes a call on future expected interest rate, which can be either hardening or softening of interest rates, he makes necessary changes by way of duration management to maximize portfolio return. This is a directional call.The manager would reduce the duration of the portfolio if he expects the interest rates to rise. This will help him to protect from price risk. Similarly, if the outlook of the manager is of declining interest rate, he would increase the duration of the portfolio as it would help him in maximising returns.30 / 100A company is frequently trading in its own equity shares for the last 2-3 years. Sometimes it also took short term loans for this purpose. Now the company wants the profits earned in this process to be treated as Capital Gains. Can it convince the Income Tax officials? A. No, as the trading was leveraged with borrowing (short term loans) B. No, as the trading was done frequently, it will be considered as Business Income C. Yes, if the company shows these as investments in the books of accounts a) Either A or C b) Either B or C c) Only A and B d) None of the above Explanation:To be treated as Capital Gains, the intention at the time of acquisition of financial investments should be of Capital Appreciation. Also there should be low frequency of trading and own funds have to be used.As all these rules are not adhered to in the above situation, the gains will not be considered as Capital Gains. They will be considered as Business Income.31 / 100Which of the following does not constitute a part of the portfolio management process? a) Construction of the portfolio b) Selection of assets c) Tax compliance d) Doing the risk profiling of the investor Explanation:The elements in the portfolio management process are planning, execution and evaluation as stated below:1. The first step is development of policy statement for the portfolio. It is a road map that identifies investors’ risk appetite and defines investment objectives, goals and investment constraints.2. The second step involves study of current financial conditions and forecast future trends.3. The third step is construction of portfolio after taking into consideration policy statement and financial markets forecast. Investor needs and financial market forecasts being dynamic, portfolio requires continuous monitoring and rebalancing.4. The fourth step in portfolio management process is performance measurement & evaluation. Tax compliance does not form a part of this process. It’s the job of the investor to adhere to tax rules and pay the taxes.32 / 100The factor ‘Quality’ for enhanced indexing can be measured by Return on Assets. State whether True or False? a) True b) False Explanation:Smart beta index highlights certain criteria, which do not get highlighted in broad market index for example quality, value, volatility, momentum etc.The ‘Quality’ factor can be measured by parameters like Return on Equity, Return on Capital Employed, Return on Assets, Cash flow, Leverage and Strength of Balance Sheet.33 / 100Mr. Rohan, a fund manager, has invested in four bonds P, Q, R and S. The weightage of these bonds are 20%, 20% , 30% and 30% in the portfolio and the YTMs are 8.5%, 7%, 9% and 7.5% respectively. Calculate the expected Yield at maturity. Also what is the assumption in this strategy? A. It is assumed that the bonds should have the same frequency of coupon payment B. It is assumed that there are no transaction costs during the term of the investment. a) 7.48% , Assumption A b) 7.48% , Assumption B c) 8.05% , Assumption A d) 8.05% , Assumption B Explanation:The Yield at Maturity of the portfolio will be calculated as := 8.5 x 20% + 7 x 20% + 9 x 30% + 7.5 x 30%= 1.7 + 1.4 + 2.7 + 2.25= 8.05%Assumption – The investor will not incur any intermittent transaction costs since there are no trades in-between investment and maturity date except for the coupon payments.34 / 100An investor is expecting three possible scenarios Boom, Normal and Recession in the next one year. The investor assigned a 60 percent probability to a Normal scenario. Also the odds of a Boom are 3 times than that of a Recession. Calculate the probabilities of Boom and Recession scenarios. a) Boom 30% , Recession 10% b) Boom 25% , Recession 15% c) Boom 35% , Recession 5% d) Boom 20% , Recession 20% Explanation:Lets assume the probability of Recession as ‘x’. The probability of Boom is 3 times of a Recession, so it will be 3x.The total probability is always 100%. Out of this, the probability of Normal scenario is 60%Therefore 60 + x + 3x = 100x + 3x = 100 – 604x = 40x = 40/4 = 10Therefore probability of Recession is 10Probability of Boom is 3x = 10 x 3 = 30Thus the probability of Boom is 30% and Recession is 10%35 / 100Identify the correct statement with respect to investing in Floaters a) Investing in Floaters means investing in bonds whose coupon is reset at regular intervals b) Investing in Floaters means investing in an Index linked bond c) Investing in Floaters means investing in those bonds which have free float in terms of availability to trade d) Investing in Floaters means buying a bond with a fluctuating duration Explanation:Investing in floaters provides protection from large movement of interest rates. A floater bond’s coupon is reset on periodic intervals as and when the underlying index is reset (for example the floater bond’s coupon is linked to quarterly GDP growth rate or quarterly wholesale inflation index etc.)Therefore, the maximum duration of a floater bond at any given point in time is only the remaining time when the underlying index is reset, even though the maturity of the floater bond may be much longer.36 / 100Category III AIFs are liable to pay income tax on income earned as __________ on transfer of securities. a) Capital gains b) Risk c) Loss d) All the above Explanation:Category III AIFs are liable to pay income tax on income earned as capital gains on transfer of securities because capital gains arise from the transfer of capital assets such as securities.37 / 100Investment Managers can also use a GARP ___, which combines the tenets of Value Investing and Growth Investing, while making stock selection. a) Investment Style b) Stock Selection c) Asset Allocation d) Investment Horizon Explanation:Investment Managers can use a GARP investment style, which combines the tenets of Value Investing and Growth Investing, to guide their stock selection process.38 / 100If the equity share price falls, the fund will benefit from its short position and continue to earn fixed income, in the form of coupons on the convertible security. State Whether True or false. a) True b) False Explanation:If the equity share price falls, the fund will benefit from its short position and continue to earn fixed income, in the form of coupons on the convertible security. TRUE. This statement correctly describes the benefit of a short position and the income from coupons on a convertible security.39 / 100Identification of ___________ is imperative for the fund, to establish the natural person who ultimately owns or controls the institution which is investing in the Category III AIF. a) Registration Agency b) Ultimate Beneficial Owners c) Foreign Portfolio Investors d) Connected person Explanation:Identification of ultimate beneficial owners is imperative for the fund, to establish the natural person who ultimately owns or controls the institution which is investing in the Category III AIF.40 / 100Employees who do not respect the Distributor’s Confidentiality Policy should be held liable for disciplinary action. The employees should not ___________. a) Not have access to portable storage devices on their personal computers b) Secure confidential information, with passwords and encryptions c) Disclose confidential information to anyone outsider and third-party, without authorization d) All the above Explanation:Employees who do not respect the Distributor’s Confidentiality Policy should be held liable for disciplinary action. The employees should not disclose confidential information to anyone outside or third-party without authorization to maintain confidentiality and avoid breaches41 / 100A _____________ is a Trust wherein the trust beneficiaries, and their respective beneficial interests, are ascertainable as per the terms of the Indenture of Trust or the Trust Deed, at all times during its existence. a) Indeterminate Trust b) Determinate Trust c) Indenture of Trust d) None of these Explanation:A determinate trust is a Trust wherein the trust beneficiaries, and their respective beneficial interests, are ascertainable as per the terms of the Indenture of Trust or the Trust Deed, at all times during its existence.42 / 100Category III AIFs structured as closed-ended funds offer limited redemption options to the investors, as compared to _______________. a) Closed-ended funds b) Open-ended funds c) Close-open funds d) Open-close funds Explanation:Category III AIFs structured as closed-ended funds offer limited redemption options to the investors, as compared to open-ended funds, where investors can redeem their units at NAV periodically. 43 / 100_________ is computed for investors in a series of units to report the value of assets attributable per unit, as reduced by the liabilities and expenses apportioned to such series, as on a Valuation Day. a) Fund NAV b) Class NAV c) Series NAV d) Series Assets Explanation:Series NAV is computed for investors in a series of units to report the value of assets attributable per unit, as reduced by the liabilities and expenses apportioned to such series, as on a Valuation Day. This calculation helps determine the net asset value specific to a particular series within a fund.44 / 100__________ the trust is treated as an ‘association of persons’ and tax is charged on the entire income of the trust at the maximum marginal rate. a) Indenture of Trust b) Wrapper c) Custodian trust d) Auditors Explanation:When a trust is treated as an ‘association of persons’ and tax is charged on the entire income of the trust at the maximum marginal rate, it refers to the Indenture of Trust. This term identifies the legal document governing the trust’s operations and distribution of income.45 / 100In case of a body corporate, net worth is at least Rs. 50 crore. State Whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:The statement “In case of a body corporate, net worth is at least Rs. 50 crore.” is TRUE. This criterion often applies in various regulatory contexts to distinguish larger entities based on their financial size.46 / 100____________ is a generic term for evaluating corporate behavior and is used interchangeably with sustainable, responsible, impact or ethical investment. a) Responsible Investment b) Lock-in Period c) Environment, Social and Governance d) Exit Load Explanation:Environment, Social and Governance (ESG) is a generic term for evaluating corporate behavior and is used interchangeably with sustainable, responsible, impact, or ethical investment. It refers to criteria that socially conscious investors consider alongside financial returns.47 / 100______________ funds that seek later stage investment opportunities do not use any leverage at fund level or indulge in complex trading operations. a) Category I AIF b) Category II AIF c) Category III AIF d) None of these Explanation:Category II AIF funds that seek later stage investment opportunities do not use any leverage at fund level or indulge in complex trading operations. This category is typically focused on private equity and debt investments but with less risk than Category III AIFs.48 / 100_______________ Agreement records the terms on which an investor participates in a fund. a) Indenture of Trust b) Contribution Agreement c) Investment Management d) Investor Side Letters Explanation:A Contribution Agreement records the terms on which an investor participates in a fund. It outlines the investor’s commitment, rights, and obligations regarding capital contributions to the fund.49 / 100____________ measure of volatility of the fund, with respect to the relevant benchmark. a) Alpha b) Expected Return c) Risk-free Rate of Return d) Beta Explanation:Beta is a measure of volatility of the fund, with respect to the relevant benchmark. It indicates the sensitivity of a fund’s returns to market movements compared to the benchmark, providing insights into its risk profile relative to the market.50 / 100The ______________ is granted by SEBI, for the specific Category of AIF applied for by the applicant. a) Applicant Certificate b) Acceptation Certificate c) Registration Certificate d) All the above Explanation:The Registration Certificate is granted by SEBI for the specific Category of AIF applied for by the applicant. This certificate confirms the registration of the Alternative Investment Fund with SEBI.51 / 100Distressed debt financing through private debt funds is also catching on in India in the form of refinancing settlements with banks and insolvency resolution schemes under the _____________. a) Solvency and Bankruptcy Code b) Resident Foreign Currency code c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code d) None of the above Explanation:Distressed debt financing through private debt funds is catching on in India in the form of refinancing settlements with banks and insolvency resolution schemes under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code. This legal framework facilitates restructuring and resolution of distressed assets.52 / 100A _____________ focuses on delivering absolute returns for investors by taking either a net long position or a net short position in the selected stocks or a broad-based market index. a) Macro Investment b) Directional Strategy c) Global-Directional Strategy d) Market-Neutral Strategy Explanation:A Directional Strategy focuses on delivering absolute returns for investors by taking either a net long position (expecting prices to rise) or a net short position (expecting prices to fall) in selected stocks or market indices.53 / 100_____________ can also be used for comparison of the returns generated by the Category III AIF with the returns generated by other comparable funds. a) Maximum Drawdown b) Sharpe Ratio c) Expected Return d) Performance Benchmarking Explanation:Performance Benchmarking can also be used for comparison of the returns generated by the Category III AIF with the returns generated by other comparable funds. It helps investors assess the fund’s performance relative to its peers.54 / 100Category III AIFs are formed for the purpose of generating ___, by implementing diversified investment strategies, across different asset classes. a) Beta b) Alpha c) Kama d) None of the above Explanation:Category III AIFs are formed for the purpose of generating alpha, by implementing diversified investment strategies across different asset classes. Alpha represents the excess return of the investment relative to the market.55 / 100___________ is responsible to oversee the functions such as the issue of new class of units, transfer of units, full and partial redemption calls, payment of exit load, expenses and fees by the selling unit holder. a) Registrar and Transfer Agent b) Agent And Tax Advisors c) Transfer agent and Tax advisors d) None of these Explanation:The Registrar and Transfer Agent is responsible for overseeing functions such as issuing new classes of units, transferring units, processing redemption requests, collecting exit loads, and managing fund expenses.56 / 100_____________ is usually made in accordance with the capital call schedule, mutually agreed with the investors in the Contribution Agreement. a) Capital Invested b) Diligence c) Drawdown d) ESG Explanation:Drawdown is usually made in accordance with the capital call schedule mutually agreed with investors in the Contribution Agreement. It refers to the process of accessing capital committed by investors as needed by the fund.57 / 100Total income exceeding Rs.5 crore the Surcharge Rate is 37%. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:For total income exceeding Rs. 5 crore, the Surcharge Rate is indeed 37%, making the statement TRUE. Surcharge rates vary based on total income levels in India.58 / 100A change in the Option ________________ indicates the change in the probability of the option being in the – money, or generating a profit, at expiry. a) Interest b) Claim amount c) Premium d) Tax Explanation:A change in the Premium indicates the change in the probability of the option being in the money (generating a profit) at expiry. Premium reflects the market’s assessment of the option’s value and likelihood of profitability.59 / 100A securitization company floated by a bank is not an AIF under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations 2012. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:A securitization company floated by a bank is not classified as an AIF under the SEBI (AIF) Regulations 2012, making the statement TRUE. AIFs have specific regulatory criteria and purposes distinct from securitization companies.60 / 100A Category III AIF will be liable to pay tax as per the provisions of Section 112A, provided the fund has paid the applicable ___ on the purchase and sale of equity shares. a) Short-term Capital Gains b) Concessional tax rates c) Revocable tax d) Securities Transaction Tax Explanation:A Category III AIF will be liable to pay tax as per the provisions of Section 112A, provided the fund has paid the applicable Securities Transaction Tax (STT) on the purchase and sale of equity shares. STT is a tax levied on transactions done through recognized stock exchanges in India.61 / 100____________ charged by the Fund primarily includes Management Fees and Performance Fees. a) Total Fees b) Incentive Fees c) Performance Fees d) National Net value Explanation:Total Fees charged by the Fund primarily includes Management Fees and Performance Fees. This encompasses all fees paid by investors to the fund manager, including base management fees and performance-based fees.62 / 100The Accredited Investors investing in “Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors” or any Category III AIF launched exclusively for the investor in which regulatory concessions have been availed, shall not be eligible to withdraw the Consent. State Whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:Accredited Investors investing in “Large Value Fund for Accredited Investors” or any Category III AIF launched exclusively for the investor in which regulatory concessions have been availed, shall not be eligible to withdraw the Consent. This statement is TRUE. Consent once given by such investors typically cannot be withdrawn under regulatory provisions.63 / 100Percentage of equity shareholding of the Category III AIF shall be computed with reference to the annual average of the monthly averages of the ______________ of the Fund. a) Opening NAV b) Closing NAV c) A or B d) A & B Explanation:The percentage of equity shareholding of the Category III AIF shall be computed with reference to the annual average of the monthly averages of the Closing NAV of the Fund. This calculation method helps determine the proportion of equity ownership relative to the fund’s net asset value over a specified period.64 / 100Category III AIFs can be deemed to be connected persons, as specified in the SEBI Regulations, and hence shall communicate, provide or allow access to unpublished price sensitive information, except in furtherance of business purposes, performance of duties or discharge of legal obligations. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Category III AIFs can be deemed to be connected persons as per SEBI Regulations, and hence shall not communicate, provide, or allow access to unpublished price-sensitive information, except in furtherance of business purposes, performance of duties, or discharge of legal obligations. This statement is FALSE. Category III AIFs, like other entities, are prohibited from insider trading and must adhere to strict guidelines regarding the handling of price-sensitive information.65 / 100____________ entity is least likely to be a permissible legal structure, seeking registration as a Category III AIF under the SEBI Regulations. a) Limited Liability Partnership b) Company c) Trust d) Proprietorship Explanation:The least likely permissible legal structure seeking registration as a Category III AIF under SEBI Regulations is a Proprietorship. This type of entity typically lacks the necessary legal framework and separateness required for AIF operations.66 / 100A ___________ is a Trust which can be revoked by the Settlor of such Trust, at their discretion or as per the consent of the beneficiaries. a) Dividend Trust b) Irrevocable Trust c) Revocable Trust d) Indebenture Trust Explanation:A Revocable Trust is a Trust that can be revoked by the Settlor at their discretion or as per the consent of the beneficiaries. This flexibility distinguishes it from an irrevocable trust, where terms are typically fixed.67 / 100Investment managers prefer to include a catch-up clause in the Contribution Agreement, with a high catch-up rate. State whether True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:Investment managers prefer to include a catch-up clause in the Contribution Agreement, typically with a high catch-up rate. This statement is TRUE. A catch-up clause allows managers to receive a higher share of profits after investors have achieved a certain return threshold, aligning incentives.68 / 100Investment Managers are permitted to invest maximum ____________ of the investable funds in one investee company directly or through investment in units of other Alternative Investment Funds. a) 10 percent b) 20 percent c) 25 percent d) 30 percent Explanation:Investment Managers are permitted to invest a maximum of 10 percent of the investable funds in one investee company directly or through investment in units of other Alternative Investment Funds. This limit helps manage risk and diversify investments.69 / 100The _______________ Fund has a Co-investment Arrangement with the Onshore Fund and the Offshore investment manager has the option to enter into an Investment Advisory Arrangement with the Domestic Investment Manager. a) Offshore b) Onshore c) Close-ended d) Open-ended Explanation:The Offshore Fund has a Co-investment Arrangement with the Onshore Fund, and the Offshore investment manager has the option to enter into an Investment Advisory Arrangement with the Domestic Investment Manager. Offshore funds often utilize such arrangements to optimize investment strategies across jurisdictions.70 / 100____________ is a statutory regulatory body entrusted with the responsibility to regulate the Indian Capital Markets. a) Securities and Environment Board of India b) Securities and Extrude Board of India c) Securities and Exchange Board of India d) Secretary and Exchange Board of India Explanation:Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) is the statutory regulatory body entrusted with the responsibility to regulate the Indian Capital Markets, ensuring investor protection and market integrity.71 / 100Surcharge applicable on Dividend Income will be at 25%, as the income of Fund TI, excluding Capital Gains under sections 112A and 111A, is above Rs.2 crore and less than ________________. a) Rs.1 crore b) Rs.5 crore c) Rs.3 crore d) Rs.4 crore Explanation:Surcharge applicable on Dividend Income will be at 25%, as the income of Fund TI, excluding Capital Gains under sections 112A and 111A, is above Rs.2 crore and less than Rs.5 crore. This surcharge rate applies to higher income brackets.72 / 100___________ of the Fund is computed by adding the exposure in all long positions, and exposure in short positions. a) Total Exposure b) Margin c) Future contract exposure d) Options exposure Explanation:Total Exposure of the Fund is computed by adding the exposure in all long positions and exposure in short positions, reflecting the overall risk and investment exposure of the fund’s portfolio.73 / 100The Category of Alternative Investment Funds which are permitted to take leverage positions, through Futures and Options (F&O) contracts, structured products, margin trading and arbitrage strategies, are known as _____________. a) Category I AIF b) Category II AIF c) Category III AIF d) All the above Explanation:Category III AIFs, which are permitted to take leverage positions through Futures and Options (F&O) contracts, structured products, margin trading, and arbitrage strategies, are known as Category III AIFs. These funds employ sophisticated investment strategies to maximize returns.74 / 100___________ play a crucial support function to Investment Managers. a) Fund Infrastructure b) Co-ordinating company c) Parallel structure d) Fund Administrators Explanation:Fund Administrators play a crucial support function to Investment Managers, handling operational tasks such as accounting, reporting, and investor relations.75 / 100The ____________ appoints the Trustee by signing the Trust Deed and the Investment Manager by signing the Investment Management Agreement, to form part of the Category III AIF. a) Trustor b) Trust Settlor c) Sponsor d) Manager Explanation:The Sponsor appoints the Trustee by signing the Trust Deed and the Investment Manager by signing the Investment Management Agreement, forming essential roles within a Category III AIF’s structure.76 / 100Eligibility Criteria for accreditation is ______________. a) Annual income should be at least Rs.1 crore b) Annual income should be at least Rs.10 lakhs c) Annual income should be at least Rs.50 lakhs d) Annual income should be at least Rs.2 crore Explanation:The Eligibility Criteria for accreditation require that annual income should be at least Rs.2 crore to qualify as an Accredited Investor. This criterion ensures that investors have the financial capability to bear the risks associated with AIF investments.77 / 100The unit holders in a Category III AIF would primarily earn income from the streams are ______________. a) Dividend income b) Mutual fund units c) Gains on transfer of units of the Fund d) All the above Explanation:The unit holders in a Category III AIF primarily earn income from streams such as Gains on transfer of units of the Fund. This income reflects the returns generated from trading activities within the fund.78 / 100_________________ represents the rate of return at which the present value of the cash outflows for the investors is equal to the present value of inflows. a) Gross Asset Value b) Reference Hurdle c) Internal Rate of Rate d) None of the above Explanation:Internal Rate of Return (IRR) represents the rate of return at which the present value of the cash outflows for the investors is equal to the present value of inflows, providing a measure of the fund’s profitability over time.79 / 100_______________ type of funds invest in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure or other sectors, areas which the government and regulators consider as socially or economically desirable. a) Category I AIF b) Category II AIF c) Category III AIF d) Category IV AIF Explanation:Category I AIFs invest in start-ups, early-stage ventures, social ventures, SMEs, infrastructure, or other sectors deemed socially or economically desirable by regulators.80 / 100____________ reviews the appointment of the trustee at the time of registration of the AIF and subsequent changes need to be notified and approved by SEBI. a) Insurance company b) SEBI c) AIF d) All the above Explanation:SEBI reviews the appointment of the trustee at the time of registration of the AIF, and subsequent changes need to be notified and approved by SEBI to ensure compliance and investor protection.81 / 100In case of joint investors in a fund, the following additional conditions shall apply –(i)If joint holders are parent(s) and child(ren), at least one person should independently fulfil the eligibility criteria for accreditation.(ii) If foreign investors seeking accreditation, the eligibility should be determined based on the rupee equivalent of their income and/or net worth, as applicable.(iii) If joint holders are spouses, their combined income/net worth should fulfil the eligibility criteria for accreditation. a) (i) & (ii) b) (ii) & (iii) c) (i) & (iii) d) (i), (ii) & (iii) Explanation:In case of joint investors in a fund, additional conditions apply to ensure eligibility for accreditation, such as (i) & (iii): If joint holders are parent(s) and child(ren), or spouses, their combined income/net worth should fulfill the eligibility criteria for accreditation.82 / 100The schedule should mention the amount of initial drawdown and the amount and timings of the subsequent drawdowns to be made during the __________________ period, which can be a fixed periodic drawdown. a) Commercial b) Commitment c) Drawdown d) Capital Invested Explanation:The schedule should mention the amount of initial drawdown and the amount and timings of the subsequent drawdowns to be made during the Commitment period, ensuring clarity and transparency in fund capital utilization.83 / 100_______________ of the following securities would least likely be valued at Fair Market Value, by a Category III AIF. a) Listed Equities b) Unlisted Equities c) Exposure in Commodity Derivative Contracts d) Units of a mutual fund Explanation:Unlisted Equities would least likely be valued at Fair Market Value by a Category III AIF, as their valuation involves more subjective assessments compared to listed equities or other standard financial instruments.84 / 100_____________ is also chargeable on services provided by external service providers, such as Fund Administrators, Registrars, Custodians, Auditors, Brokers, Investment Advisors and other third-party professional experts. a) Securities Transaction Tax b) Income Tax c) Withholding Tax d) Goods and Services Tax Explanation:Goods and Services Tax (GST) is also chargeable on services provided by external service providers, such as Fund Administrators, Registrars, Custodians, Auditors, Brokers, Investment Advisors, and other third-party professional experts, reflecting the tax implications in service transactions.85 / 100Category II AIF, Act with required skill, care and diligence in the conduct of business as a Distributor. State whether true or false. a) True b) False Explanation:Category II AIFs are required to act with the required skill, care, and diligence in the conduct of their business as per SEBI regulations, ensuring responsible and prudent management of investor funds.86 / 100________________ the risk of potentially fraudulent activities by third-party service providers, such as data theft, misuse of confidential data, and sharing such data without seeking consent. a) Distributors b) Investors c) Customers d) Sales Explanation:Distributors mitigate the risk of potential fraudulent activities by third-party service providers, such as data theft, misuse of confidential data, and sharing such data without seeking consent.87 / 100Investors willing to invest in Category III AIFs must be aware of such risks and accordingly be capable of climbing the __________________, in search of superior returns. a) premium-return trade b) risk-return trade-off c) risk-free-return trader d) premium claim-return trade up Explanation:Investors willing to invest in Category III AIFs must be aware of such risks and accordingly be capable of climbing the risk-return trade-off, in search for superior returns.88 / 100____________ investors and Institutional Investors diversify their portfolios to mitigate concentration risk on investing in only one asset class. a) PRI b) IOS c) HNI d) None of these Explanation:High Net-Worth Individual (HNI) investors and Institutional Investors diversify their portfolios to mitigate the concentration risk of investing in only one asset class. 89 / 100_____________ calculation is independent from the fund management function, and is disclosed to investors at quarterly intervals for close-ended funds, and monthly intervals for open-ended funds. a) Fund tenure b) Interest c) Debt d) NAV Explanation:NAV (Net Asset Value) calculation is independent from the fund management function and is disclosed to investors at quarterly intervals for close-ended funds, and monthly intervals for open-ended funds. 90 / 100______________ is a fast-emerging investment protocol in the world of corporate investments, more emphatically in the realm of alternative investing. a) SEBI b) ESG c) PRI d) All the above Explanation:ESG (Environmental, Social, and Governance) is a fast-emerging investment protocol in the world of corporate investments, more emphatically in the realm of alternative investing.91 / 100The leverage taken by a Category III AIF shall not exceed 2 times of the ______________ of the fund. a) Net Asset Value b) Total Capital Contribution c) Total Investments d) Gross Asset Value Explanation:The leverage taken by a Category III AIF shall not exceed 2 times of the Net Asset Value of the fund. 92 / 100A _____________ is banned from charging upfront fees, such as Registration Fees or Subscription Fees, to the investors directly or indirectly. a) Prospective investee b) Portfolio Manager c) Pre-fees returns d) Operating Expenses Explanation:A Portfolio Manager is banned from charging upfront fees, such as Registration Fees or Subscription Fees, to the investors directly or indirectly. 93 / 100Model Code Of Conduct for Category III AIF Distributors Disclose all material information including Hurdle Rate, Management Fees, Additional Returns and Catch-up provisions, if any, expenses chargeable to the Fund and expenses to be borne by the _______________. a) Provider b) Distributors c) Investment manager d) Investee Explanation:Model Code Of Conduct for Category III AIF Distributors mandates disclosure of all material information including Hurdle Rate, Management Fees, Additional Returns, and Catch-up provisions, if any, expenses chargeable to the Fund and expenses to be borne by the Investment manager.94 / 100________________ process is crucial for the Investment Manager and investors, to determine the fair amount of Incentive Fees payable, as on a particular Valuation Day. a) Mark-to-Market b) Market-to-Market c) Fair Market Value d) Marked-to-Market Explanation:The Mark-to-Market process is crucial for the Investment Manager and investors to determine the fair amount of Incentive Fees payable, as on a particular Valuation Day.95 / 100Any gains arising from these transactions shall be treated as ‘Profits and Gains from Business and Profession’ and the fund should be liable to pay tax on such income at the Maximum Marginal Rate of Tax that is, _______________. a) 32.773% b) 12.744% c) 42.744% d) 24.447% Explanation:Any gains arising from these transactions shall be treated as ‘Profits and Gains from Business and Profession’ and the fund should be liable to pay tax on such income at the Maximum Marginal Rate of Tax that is, 42.744%.96 / 100The Fund’s assets comprise the _______________. a) All cash and bank account holdings, plus earned interest b) Securities and investments owned by the Fund c) All interest earned on interest-bearing securities held by the Fund d) All the above Explanation:The Fund’s assets comprise all the above: All cash and bank account holdings, plus earned interest; Securities and investments owned by the Fund; All interest earned on interest-bearing securities held by the Fund.97 / 100Alternative investment is defined as a _____________ that does not fall into one of the conventional investment categories. a) Mutual fund b) Financial asset c) Personal property d) Financial planning Explanation:Alternative investment is defined as a financial asset that does not fall into one of the conventional investment categories.98 / 100_____________ entities can least likely be a Service Provider for a Category III AIF. a) Auditors b) Custodians c) Fund Administrators d) Investment Manager Explanation:Investment Manager entities can least likely be a Service Provider for a Category III AIF.99 / 100______________ are suitable to Pre-Commitment Services.(i) Preparation of Pitch Books and Distribution Kits(ii) Facilitating Fund Due Diligence by investors(iii) Encryption of electronic information and safeguarding databases(iv) Store and lock paper documents a) (i) & (iii) b) (ii) & (iv) c) (i) & (ii) d) (iii) & (iv) Explanation:(i) Preparation of Pitch Books and Distribution Kits and (ii) Facilitating Fund Due Diligence by investors are suitable to Pre-Commitment Services. Pre-commitment services involve activities that help in preparing for investments before they are formally committed. Pitch books and distribution kits are essential tools used to present investment opportunities to potential investors. Facilitating fund due diligence involves providing necessary information and support to investors during their evaluation process. These activities are critical in building investor confidence and ensuring thorough preparation before investment decisions are finalized. 100 / 100The ______________ instruments are now considered as non-debt instruments. a) Capital participation in limited liability partnerships b) Depository receipts issued against equity instruments c) Contribution to trusts d) All the above Explanation:The Depository receipts issued against equity instruments are now considered as non-debt instruments. Depository receipts represent ownership of shares in a foreign company held by a domestic custodian bank. These receipts are traded on local exchanges and are classified as equity instruments because they reflect ownership in underlying equities. They are distinct from debt instruments like bonds or debentures, which represent loans or obligations with fixed repayment terms and interest payments.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit