NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) Mock Test-3/50 NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) Mock Test -3 1 / 50Do investments in the same asset class have high negative correlation? a) Yes, because they are affected by the same macro economic factors b) No, they are weakly negatively correlated c) Yes, due to investor's arbitrage d) No, they display positive correlation Explanation:Assets within the same class usually move in the same direction, showing positive correlation.2 / 50The investment goals of investors can be categorised in a Investment Policy Document, for better clarity, on the basis of ________. a) Time Period and Return b) Return and Risk c) Priority and Return d) Time Period and Priority Explanation:Investment goals are categorized based on time horizon and importance to guide portfolio decisions.3 / 50An Investor has an old house purchased for Rs.5 crores and some Antique Paintings acquired at Rs.25 lakhs and personal loan and credit card outstanding at Rs.15 lakhs. What is the Estimated Net worth? a) Minimum 5.1 Crores b) Minimum 5 crores c) Cannot be Estimated due to lack of market values of assets d) Minimum 5.25 crores Explanation:Without current market values of assets, net worth cannot be accurately calculated.4 / 50Which of the following decisions are taken more frequently? a) Psychographic Classification of Investor b) Tactical Asset Allocation c) Strategic Asset Allocation d) Asset Selection Explanation:Tactical decisions are short-term and adjusted frequently based on market conditions.5 / 50Strategic Asset Allocation decisions focus more on _______. a) Time taken to Enter the Market b) Time of the Market c) Timing the Market d) Time in the Market Explanation:Strategic allocation emphasizes long-term investing rather than timing market movements. 6 / 50Rebalancing Norms of Portfolio find a place in __________. a) SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020 b) Investment Policy Statement c) Fund Scheme Document d) GIPS Guidelines Explanation:The Investment Policy Statement outlines rules for asset allocation and rebalancing.7 / 50If the cumulative wealth relative for a 5 year period is 1.4562, then what is the Geometric Mean Return (round off to two decimals)? a) 9.12 percent b) 7.81 percent c) 1.09 percent d) 1.07 percent Explaination:Geometric mean return reflects the compounded annual growth rate over the investment period.8 / 50Which of the following is a significant challenge in the creation of a customised benchmark? a) Arriving at the weights to the securities b) Maintenance cost of the benchmark c) Finding comparable securities d) Tracking the performance of the benchmark Explanation:Custom benchmarks require continuous monitoring and updates, leading to higher costs. 9 / 50What is the list which the Compliance Officer of a company maintains to approve trades by Designated Persons? a) Restricted List b) Concurrent List c) Diligent List d) Approved List Explanation:The restricted list limits trading in certain securities to prevent misuse of insider information.10 / 50In determining the Price of a derivative, which of the following is not used ________. a) Price Volatility of underlying assets b) Value at Risk of the underlying Asset c) Price of underlying asset d) Expiration period of the derivative contract Explanation:Value at Risk is a risk measurement tool and is not used in pricing derivatives.11 / 50Which of the following is considered to be an investment objective? a) Current income b) Capital preservation c) Capital appreciation d) All of the above Explanation:Investors’ objectives are identified as risk-return-liquidity. Investors may state their investment objectives in terms of desired return in an absolute or relative sense. Generally, investors invest for the preservation of capital, regular income, and capital appreciation.12 / 50For a person to be qualified as a NRI, he must have stayed outside India for more than days in a previous financial year. a) 150 b) 182 c) 365 d) 280 Explanation:An individual is treated as a resident in India if he stays in India for: (a) 182 days or more during the relevant previous year; or (b) 60 days or more (but less than 182 days) during the relevant previous year and for 365 days or more in the last 4 years. Therefore, if a person stays outside India for more than 182 days, he will be treated as a NRI.13 / 50Risks due to sector-specific/company-specific factors are referred to as ________. a) Systematic risks b) Unsystematic risks c) Speculative risks d) Total risks Explanation:Unsystematic risks are those due to sector-specific/company-specific factors. These risks can be diversified away. Systematic risk is due to common risk factors, like interest rates, exchange rates, and commodity prices. It is linked to supply and demand in various marketplaces. These common risk factors affect all investments directly or indirectly. Systematic risks cannot be diversified away, though they can be hedged.14 / 50Identify the FALSE statement. Dealing in securities shall be deemed to be manipulative or fraudulent if it involves _______. a) Entering into a trade in securities without the intention of performing it b) Selling or pledging of securities in physical or dematerialized form c) Inducing a person from dealing in securities for artificially inflating or depressing the prices in securities d) Inducing any person to subscribe to an issue of shares Explanation:As per SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003 : Dealing in securities shall be deemed to be a manipulative, fraudulent, or unfair trade practice if it involves 1. inducing any person to subscribe to an issue of the securities for fraudulently securing the minimum subscription to such issue of securities 2. inducing any person to deal in any securities for artificially inflating, depressing, maintaining, or causing fluctuation in the price of securities 3. entering into a transaction in securities without the intention of performing it or without the intention of change of ownership of such security15 / 50The first step in the investment process is the development of ________. a) Financial statement b) Statement of cash needs c) Objective statement d) Investment Policy Statement Explanation:The portfolio management process involves a set of integrated activities undertaken in a logical, orderly, and consistent manner to create and maintain an optimum portfolio. The first step in the process of portfolio management is the development of a policy statement for the portfolio. It is a road map that identifies investors’ risk appetite and defines investment objectives, goals, and investment constraints.16 / 50__________ marked the beginning of PMS when SEBI issued SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations. a) January 1999 b) January 2010 c) January 1993 d) January 2020 Explanation:January 1993, marked the beginning of the Portfolio Management Service when SEBI issued Securities and Exchange Board of India (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 1993. These were some of the first few regulations issued by the regulators.17 / 50If there is uncertainty concerning the future payment, the investor would require a return more than the nominal required rate of return. The additional component is called ________. a) Alpha b) Risk-free rate of return c) Risk premium d) Both Alpha and Risk-free rate of return Explanation:The returns from most of the investment opportunities (apart from Government bonds) do not have certainty of the amount and the timing of cash flows. Further, the uncertainty of receiving future cashflows varies amongst investments. In such cases, investors would require compensation for the uncertainty associated with future cash flows. This additional compensation over the nominal risk-free rate is called risk premium. If the investors perceive higher risk (more uncertainty with respect to the future payment), they would demand a higher risk premium.18 / 50Portfolio performance measure of “Information Ratio” _______________. a) calculates average differential return per unit of the variability of differential return b) evaluates portfolio performance based on return per unit of risk c) adjusts portfolio risk to match benchmark risk d) compares portfolio returns to expected returns under CAPM Explanation:If one wishes to determine whether or not an observed alpha is due to skill or chance, we can compute the information (appraisal) ratio. It calculates the average differential return per unit of variability of differential return.19 / 50The measure of performance which divides the portfolio’s risk premium by the portfolio’s beta is the _________. a) Jensen measure b) Treynor measure c) Sharpe measure d) Fama measure Explanation:The Treynor measure adjusts excess return for systematic risk. It is computed by dividing a portfolio’s excess return, by its beta. As Treynor ratio indicates return per unit of systematic risk. Hence it is a useful measure of performance if an investor wishes to evaluate a portfolio in combination with other actively managed portfolios.20 / 50What is/are the regulatory constraints for investors resident in India? a) Access to information which is unavailable to the general public b) Investment in overseas markets c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:Investors resident in India face certain regulatory constraints such as:Access to information: They are prohibited from trading based on material non-public information (insider trading laws).Investment in overseas markets: These are regulated under the Liberalised Remittance Scheme (LRS) by the RBI, which limits the amount and nature of overseas investments.Hence, both points listed are valid regulatory constraints.21 / 50Calculate the duration of a zero coupon bond which has a balance term to maturity of four years. a) Two years b) Four Years c) Eight Years d) Six Years Explanation:The duration of a bond is a measure of the time taken to recover the initial investment in present value terms. In the simplest form, duration refers to the payback period of a bond to break even, i.e., the time taken for a bond to repay its own purchase price. Because zero-coupon bonds make no coupon payments, a zero-coupon bond’s duration will be equal to its maturity.22 / 50What type of investment objective should be pursued by an investor during the Consolidation phase? a) Tax Planning b) Capital Preservation c) Regular income d) Capital Appreciation Explanation:The consolidation or mid-to-late-career phase of the typical life cycle is characterized by the period when income exceeds expenses. As a result, this stage is characterized by the consolidation of an investment portfolio. At this time, while the time horizon to retirement is still relatively long (15 or 20 years), investors may start looking for capital preservation. High capital gain investments are balanced with some lower-risk assets.23 / 50_________ costs influence the Portfolio Rebalancing decisions. a) Taxes and General Expenses b) Bid Ask spreads and Taxes. c) Transaction costs and Taxes d) Equity Research costs and Transaction costs Explanation:Portfolio rebalancing involves a simple trade-off: the cost of rebalancing versus the cost of not rebalancing. While deciding the frequency of rebalancing, the trade-off between the cost of doing it and not doing it is to be arrived at. There are two types of cost – transaction cost and tax cost. Transaction costs are the time and money costs like research costs, brokerage, etc., for buying and selling securities.24 / 50Concerning a Bond, what is an Indenture? a) An Indenture is a special kind of high-value bond. b) An Indenture is a clause of indemnity in a bond. c) An Indenture is a legal agreement describing the features of a bond. d) An Indenture is the power of SEBI to write off the liability on a bond. Explanation:An important document to understand the safety aspects of the bond is its Indenture. It is the legal agreement between the firm issuing the bond and the bondholders, providing the specific terms of the debt agreement. All the features of the bond i.e. its par value, coupon rate, maturity period, periodicity of coupon payments, collateral for the bond, and seniority of the payments will be set forth in the indenture.25 / 50The threshold frequency of performance reporting required by the portfolio managers as per SEBI (Portfolio managers) regulations is _______ . a) 5 months b) 4 months c) 3 months d) 2 months Explanation:As per SEBI Portfolio Managers regulations – The portfolio manager shall furnish periodically a report to the client, as agreed in the contract, but not exceeding a period of three months and as and when required by the client.26 / 50Identify the INCORRECT statement concerning fees paid by the client to the portfolio manager a) The client does not have to pay fees for services that are outsourced by the portfolio manager. b) Each service type-wise fee payable is agreed upon c) The fee payable by the client is agreed upon in the initial agreement. d) The performance fee charged by the Portfolio manager is completely negotiable. 27 / 50A PMS firm need not keep which of these records? a) The balance sheet of the firm b) Profit and Loss Account of the firm c) Financial statements of companies in which the PMS has invested d) Auditor’s report of the firm Explanation:Every portfolio manager shall keep and maintain the following books of accounts, records, and documents namely: – (a) a copy of the balance sheet at the end of each accounting period; (b) a copy of the profit and loss account for each accounting period; (c) a copy of the auditor’s report on the accounts for each accounting period; (d) a statement of financial position and; (e) records in support of every investment transaction or recommendation which will indicate the data, facts, and opinions leading to the investment decision. It need not keep records of the financial statements of the companies in which it has invested.28 / 50An Appraisal Ratio makes use of Tracking error – State whether True or False. a) True – as a denominator b) True – as a numerator c) False – Appraisal Ratio does not use Tracking error. Explanation:In an Appraisal Ratio, the numerator represents the fund manager’s ability to use his skill and information to generate a portfolio return that differs from the benchmark. The denominator measures the amount of residual (unsystematic) risk that the investor incurred in pursuit of those excess returns. The numerator is often referred to as the active return on the portfolio whereas the denominator is referred to as the active risk. The point to be noted is that active risk is nothing but tracking error of the portfolio.29 / 50A net amount of Rs 25,000 has to be paid as interest to an investor. The TDS (Tax Deducted at Source) is 10%. Calculate how much should be set aside for the payment of interest. a) Rs. 27500 b) Rs. 22500 c) Rs. 27777.77 d) Rs. 28444.44 Explanation:The formula to get Net from Gross after tax is –Net = Gross – (Gross X Tax)[Let Gross = G][Tax is 10% = 10/100 = 0.1]The Net amount is Rs 2500025000 = G – (G x 0.1) 25000 = G – 0.1 G[ 1G – 0.1G = .9G]25000 = .9GG= 25000/.9 = 27777.7730 / 50_______ cannot be an objective for investment. a) Capital Rationing b) Capital Appreciation c) Capital Preservation d) Current Income Explanation:People invest to achieve goals. Investment objectives can be defined as investors’ goals expressed in terms of risk, return, and liquidity preferences. The return objective may be simplified as follows:1. Capital Preservation means minimizing or avoiding the chances of erosion in the principal amount of investment.2. Capital Appreciation is an appropriate investment objective for those who want their portfolio value to grow over a period of time and are prepared to take risks.3. Current Income is an investment objective pursued when an investor wants her portfolio to generate income at regular intervals by way of dividend, interest, or rental income rather than appreciation in the value of the portfolio.31 / 50Fundamental Analysis is the process of determining ________ for the stock. a) Intrinsic value b) Face value c) Market value d) Book value Explanation:Fundamental analysis is the process of determining intrinsic value for the stock. These values depend on underlying economic factors such as future earnings or cash flows, interest rates, and risk variables. By examining these factors, the intrinsic value of the stock is determined.Investors should buy the stock if its market price is below intrinsic value and not buy, or sell if the market price is above the intrinsic value.32 / 50What is the Cash Management team of a mutual fund responsible for? a) Fund accounting b) Taxation compliance c) It is the interface between banks and the fund management team. d) AMC finances Explanation:The cash management team works as an interface between the banks and the fund management team–they ensure that money received in the bank when investors purchase units is passed on to the fund managers for further investment in securities and the investors get the redemption proceeds when they submit the redemption request.33 / 50When an individual faces a shortfall of money, his/her immediate effective response is to _______. a) Reduce his/her expenses. b) Borrow c) Increase his/her income. d) Invest Explanation:People earn money and spend money. They pass through various phases in their life cycle. During some phases, they earn more money than they spend. In other phases, they earn less than they spend. Therefore, sometimes they have to borrow money to meet the shortfall.34 / 50Mr. Abhishek is a portfolio manager and is planning to sell securities but he is not sure about the ownership or existence of the securities. Should he go ahead with the deal? a) Yes, he can go ahead with the deal because it is for the company to prove the security’s authenticity. b) Yes, he can go ahead with the deal because his intentions are good. c) Yes, he can go ahead with the deal because by the time of the completion of the transaction, he will have clarity. d) No, he cannot go ahead with the deal because it will be deemed a fraudulent transaction as per SEBI’s Prevention of Fraud Practices. Explanation:Selling securities for which the ownership is not proved will be considered a fraudulent activity.35 / 50The ______ has the power to appoint an auditor to conduct annual audits of records of their transactions with a PMS firm. a) Compliance Officer b) RBI c) Client d) SEBI Explanation:The client may appoint a chartered accountant to audit the books and accounts of the portfolio manager relating to his transactions and the portfolio manager shall co-operate with such chartered accountant in the course of the audit.36 / 50Market experts predict high volatility for the next 2-3 years. Investors in which of the following phases should be alert and consider rebalancing? a) Accumulating and Consolidation phases b) Consolidation and Spending phases c) Gifting and Consolidation phases d) Gifting and Accumulating phases Explanation:Consolidation Phase: The consolidation or mid-to-late-career stage of the typical life cycle is characterized by the period when income exceeds expenses. As a result, this stage is characterized by the consolidation of an investment portfolio.Spending Phase: This is the period when living expenses are covered not from earned income but from accumulated assets such as investments and retirement corpus. Because of the heavy reliance on investments in this phase and the unlikelihood of returning to work, the focus is on stability in an investment portfolio.So in these two phases, it is important to preserve the capital and not invest in volatile investments.37 / 50Mr. Mayank has been granted a certificate as a registered Portfolio manager by SEBI. What can lead to cancellation/suspension of his registration with SEBI in the next 12 months? a) The principal officer of Mr. Mayank has acquired a CFA charter only recently b) Mr. Mayank has a net worth of Rs. 5 crore c) The Compliance Officer of Mr. Mayank has been recently charged for an economic offense Explanation:As per SEBI rules – ‘The applicant, its director or partner, principal officer, compliance officer or the employee should not at any time been convicted for any offense involving moral turpitude or has been found guilty of any economic offense’38 / 50Beta is used to measure _______. a) Unsystematic risk b) Systematic risk c) Total risk d) All types of stock market risks Explanation:Systematic risk is defined as risk due to common risk factors, like interest rates, exchange rates, and commodities prices. It is linked to supply and demand in various marketplaces. All investments are affected by these common risk factors directly or indirectly. Systematic risks cannot be diversified away, though they can be hedged. Systematic risk is measured by Beta. Beta relates the return of a stock or a portfolio to the return on the market index. It reflects the sensitivity of the fund’s return to fluctuations in the market index.39 / 50_______ are the beneficiaries of a Mutual Fund trust. a) Unit holders b) Sponsors c) Trustees d) Asset Management Company (AMC) Explanation:Every trust has beneficiaries. The beneficiaries, in the case of a mutual fund trust, are the investors (unit holders) who invested in various schemes of the mutual fund.40 / 50Ms. Shikha has invested Rs 10 lakhs in the USA when the USD/INR rate was Rs. 74.25 per USD. After about six months, the USD/INR rate has changed to Rs. 71.25 per USD. In this scenario, the new INR value of the investment –A. Will depend on the change in the value of an investment in the USA and its value in US DollarsB. Will surely decrease as INR has appreciated a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B Explanation:The INR value of the investment depends on two factors –1. The USD/INR exchange rate2. The appreciation/depreciation in the value of the security/asset investedNormally, if the Rupee appreciates against the Dollar (Rs 74.25 to Rs 71.25 as in the above question) the value of investments will decrease in Rupee terms. But if the value of the security has increased in the US, then the exchange rate loss will be recovered by the price rise.41 / 50Identify the TRUE statement concerning ‘returns’. a) The Money Weighted rate of return is equivalent to the Annualized Holding period return b) The Time Weighted rate of return is equivalent to the Geometric Mean c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:The Time-weighted rate of return (TWRR) is the same as the geometric return.The money-weighted rate of return (MWRR) is a measure of the performance of an investment.The MWRR is calculated by finding the rate of return that will set the present values (PV) of all cash flows equal to the value of the initial investment. The MWRR is equivalent to the Internal Rate of Return (IRR). MWRR can be compared with the TWR, which removes the effects of cash in- and outflows.42 / 50Identify which provision of portfolio managers regulations does not apply to eligible fund managers. a) Submissions of required declarations to provide services to eligible investment funds b) Compliance under sections 9A of the Income Tax Act c) Disclosure requirements toward eligible investment funds d) Audit of overseas fund Explanation:SEBI has identified certain provisions of the PMS Regulations that would not be applicable to Eligible Fund managers about their activities as fund managers to Eligible Investment Funds and one of them are – ‘Audit of overseas fund’.43 / 50Identify the true statement(s) –A. While evaluating a scheme, the expense ratio is more significant for debt mutual fund schemes than equity mutual fund schemes.B. While investing in a short-term debt mutual fund, one must verify the credit quality of the portfolio a) Only A b) Only B c) Both A and B d) Neither A nor B Explanation:1. Debt funds usually give a limited return depending on the interest rates etc. Equity funds tend to give a higher return. So a high expense ratio in a debt fund will have a much bigger impact on the returns of the debt fund.2. One must check the credit quality of the portfolio while investing in any debt fund – be it long-term or short-term.44 / 50A Portfolio Manager believes that the equity market is overpriced and can correct it shortly. What action should he take? a) He should adopt a wait and watch strategy b) Rebalancing should be done depending on the investor's psychology c) Assign more weight to equity till the time market corrects d) Reduce weight in equity before the market corrects Explanation:If a Portfolio Manager believes the equity market is overpriced and due for a correction, the best strategy is to reduce exposure to equities before the downturn.This helps in locking in gains and reducing potential losses when the correction occurs.The portfolio can be shifted toward defensive assets like bonds, gold, or cash equivalents until valuations become attractive again.45 / 50Ms. Kamla is a PMS Distributor. Her client wants some explanations on the way the performance projections are made. What should she do? a) Ms. Kamla should inform the clients that in real life, the projects never come true and hence they can be ignored b) Ms. Kamla should express her inability to explain as it is a complex subject c) Ms. Kamla should refer the client to the Portfolio Manager d) Ms. Kamla is expected to explain and should take all effort to explain it Explanation:As per the SEBI Code of Conduct for PMS Distributors – The PMS Distributor should provide full and latest information about investment approaches and also highlight the assumptions made in performance calculations, risk assessments, performance projections, etc., if any, for such investment approaches.46 / 50Identify the TRUE statement concerning the Investment Policy statement. a) The investment policy statement is a document that needs periodic updates as per the investor's requirements b) The investment policy statement is an offer document prepared by the portfolio manager to attract and guide the investors c) The investment policy statement is a blank form provided by SEBI that needs to be filled up by the investors d) All of the above Explanation:The development of the Investment Policy Statement (IPS) is the key step in the process of portfolio management. IPS is the road map that guides the investment process. Either investors or their advisors draft the IPS specifying their investment objectives, goals, constraints, preferences, and risks they are willing to take.All investment decisions are based on IPS considering investors’ goals and objectives, risk appetite, etc… Since investors ’ requirements change over some time, IPS also needs to be updated and revised periodically.47 / 50Which section of the Companies Act 2013 defines a body corporate? a) Section 2 (14) b) Section 1 (12) c) Section 7 (11) d) Section 2 (11) Explanation:The Companies Act has provided an extensive definition of the term body corporate. The term “body corporate” is defined in Section 2(11) of the Companies Act, 2013.48 / 50Mr. Anmol has a grievance with the portfolio manager and he submits the same on 1st September. The portfolio manager has to redress this grievance before _______ . a) 1st November of the same year b) 1st October of the same year c) 1st December of the same year d) 16th September of the same year Explanation:As per SEBI Act – The portfolio manager shall take adequate steps for the redressal of grievances of the investors within one month of the date of the receipt of the complaint and keep SEBI informed about the number, nature, and other particulars of the complaints received.49 / 50Which of these contracts have an inherent risk of default as the parties to the transaction may fail to pay the agreed amount or deliver the commodity on the maturity of the contract? a) A Futures Contract b) A Forward Contract c) An Options Contract d) All of the above Explanation:A forward contract is an agreement made directly between two parties to buy or sell an asset on a specific date in the future, at the terms decided today. A party to the contract may default on his obligation if there is an incentive to default.For eg. A and B enter into a bilateral agreement, where A will purchase 100 kg of rice at Rs.20 per kg from B after 6 months. After 6 months, if the price of rice is Rs.30 in the market then B may forego his obligation to deliver 100 kg of rice at Rs.20 to A. Similarly, if the price of rice falls to Rs.15 then A may purchase from the market at a lower price, instead of honoring the contract.50 / 50Concerning equity markets, what does Impact Cost mean? a) Percentage price movement caused by a particular order size b) Liquidity risk measure c) Risk in illiquid stocks d) All of the above Explanation:Impact Cost in equity markets refers to the percentage price movement caused by executing a specific order size relative to the current market price.It is a measure of liquidity and indicates how much the execution of a trade affects the market price of a security. A lower impact cost implies better liquidity, while a higher impact cost indicates potential challenges in executing large orders without significantly affecting the price.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit