NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) - Full-Length Test/100 NISM Series XXI-A: Portfolio Management (PMS) – Full-Length Test 1 / 100Which statement about Speculation is incorrect? a) It is investment without any significant analysis or thought b) Speculation is based on some conjectures without evidence c) Profit is the strongest motivation for Speculation d) Speculation always leads to higher returns Explanation:Speculation involves taking risks in financial markets based on uncertain outcomes and often involves making decisions without significant analysis or evidence (option a). It is motivated by the potential for profit (option c), as speculators aim to capitalize on market fluctuations or expected future events. However, speculating does not guarantee higher returns; it can also result in losses due to the speculative nature of the investments involved. Therefore, option d (Speculation always leads to higher returns) is false.2 / 100What factors affect the future value of an investment? a) Time period b) Rate of return c) Both a & b d) None of the above Explanation:The future value of an investment is influenced by both the time period (a) over which the investment grows and the rate of return (b) earned on the investment. These two factors, time period and rate of return, interact multiplicatively to determine the future value of an investment. Therefore, option c (Both a & b) is correct because both time period and rate of return play crucial roles in determining the future value of an investment.3 / 100If there is uncertainty regarding future payments, investors would demand a return higher than the nominal required rate. What is this additional component called? a) Alpha b) Risk free rate of return c) Risk premium d) Both b & c Explanation:A risk premium is the extra return that investors require for taking on additional risk. In the context of uncertainty about future payments, investors perceive greater risk and thus demand a higher return to compensate for that risk. This risk premium reflects the additional compensation investors expect above the nominal required rate of return to account for the uncertainty or risk involved in an investment.4 / 100What type of investment represents ownership in a company, allowing holders to participate in profits and vote on company affairs? a) Bonds b) Commercial Papers c) Equity Shares d) All the above Explanation:Equity shares represent ownership in a company. Holders of equity shares are entitled to participate in the company’s profits through dividends and have voting rights in the company’s affairs, such as electing board members and voting on significant corporate decisions. Bonds (option a) and commercial papers (option b) are debt instruments and do not grant ownership or voting rights in a company, making option c (Equity Shares) the correct answer.5 / 100Liquidity Risk refers to _________?a. The ease with which one can convert an asset into Cashb. The possibility of realising almost the entire economic worth of an asset. a) Only A b) Only B c) A and B Explanation:Liquidity Risk encompasses both aspects mentioned in options a and b:a. The ease with which one can convert an asset into cash: This refers to the ability to sell an asset quickly and at a fair price without significantly affecting its market price.b. The possibility of realizing almost the entire economic worth of an asset: This indicates the extent to which an asset can be sold for its true economic value, without incurring significant discounts due to market conditions or timing of the sale.Therefore, Liquidity Risk includes both the liquidity aspect (option a) and the marketability aspect (option b) of an asset. Hence, the correct answer is c. A and B.6 / 100What is the term for when a listed company issues shares to a select group of persons, which is neither a rights nor a public issue? a) Preferential issue b) Private placement c) Private equity Explanation:A preferential issue refers to the issuance of shares by a listed company to a select group of investors (such as institutional investors, promoters, or private equity funds) without offering them to the public or existing shareholders through a rights issue. The company issues shares at a predetermined price, which is often lower than the current market price, to the selected group of persons.7 / 100What is essential for the public issue of a debt security? a) The debt issue size should be greater than Rs. 5000 Crs b) The debt instruments must be credit rated c) The debt issuer must stand as guarantor for the payment of principal and interest d) The debt instruments should have a minimum coupon specified Explanation:For the public issue of a debt security, it is essential that the debt instruments are credit rated. Credit rating involves assessing the creditworthiness of the issuer and the specific debt instruments being issued. This rating helps investors evaluate the risk associated with the investment and provides transparency regarding the issuer’s ability to repay the debt. It is a critical step in ensuring investor confidence and market participation in the issuance of debt securities.8 / 100What is the term for an intermediary committing to purchase the unsubscribed portion of an issue during the initial stages of an IPO? a) Hard Underwriting b) Soft Underwriting c) Revocable Underwriting d) Irrevocable Underwriting Explanation:Hard underwriting refers to the firm commitment by an intermediary (usually an investment bank) to purchase the unsubscribed portion of an initial public offering (IPO) or other securities issuance. This commitment is legally binding, and the intermediary must purchase the securities regardless of whether they can resell them to investors. This type of underwriting provides certainty to the issuer that the offering will be fully subscribed.9 / 100What is the function of the secondary markets? a) Provide liquidity for securities issued b) Provide a platform for making public issues c) Provide information about public companies d) All the above Explanation:a. Provide liquidity for securities issued: Secondary markets allow investors to buy and sell already issued securities, providing liquidity and enabling price discovery.b. Provide a platform for making public issues: While primary markets handle initial public offerings (IPOs), secondary markets also facilitate trading of newly issued securities after they are listed.c. Provide information about public companies: Secondary market trading contributes to price transparency and informs investors about the valuation and performance of public companies. Therefore, the correct answer isd. All the above, as secondary markets fulfill these essential roles in the financial system.10 / 100Under relative valuation techniques, the value of a stock is estimated based on its current price relative to significant valuation variables, such as _______________. a) Earnings b) cash flow c) book value d) All of these Explanation:Relative valuation techniques compare the current market price of a stock with certain fundamental variables that are considered important in valuation. These variables typically include earnings, cash flow, and book value. Relative valuation methods, such as Price-to-Earnings (P/E) ratio, Price-to-Cash Flow (P/CF) ratio, and Price-to-Book (P/B) ratio, use these variables to assess whether a stock is undervalued or overvalued relative to its peers or the market. Therefore, option d. All of these is the correct answer as all these variables are commonly used in relative valuation techniques.11 / 100Which ratio compares the price of the stock to the earnings it generates? a) P/E ratio b) P/B Ratio c) Price/Cash flow ratio d) Price/sales ratio Explanation:The P/E ratio, or Price-to-Earnings ratio, compares the current market price of a stock to its earnings per share (EPS). It is one of the most widely used valuation metrics and indicates how much investors are willing to pay per unit of earnings. A higher P/E ratio typically suggests that investors expect higher future growth in earnings, while a lower P/E ratio may indicate that the stock is undervalued relative to its earnings potential. Therefore, option a. P/E ratio is the correct answer.12 / 100What happens to a trade that is squared-off during the day? a) Does not require delivery of shares b) Is not guaranteed by the exchange c) Is cancelled by the exchange d) Is not considered in calculating trading volumes Explanation:When a trade is squared-off during the day, it means the position is closed out within the same trading day. Typically, in intraday trading, traders buy and sell the same quantity of shares (or other securities) to profit from short-term price movements without intending to take delivery of the shares. Hence, squared-off trades do not require the physical delivery of shares.13 / 100Which industries rise and fall closely with general economic activity compared to others? a) Cyclical b) Consumer staples c) Defensive d) Financial Explanation:Cyclical industries are those whose performance closely mirrors the overall economic cycle. They tend to experience significant fluctuations in demand and profitability based on economic conditions such as GDP growth, consumer spending, and business investment. Therefore, option a (Cyclical) is the correct answer as it describes industries that rise and fall in tandem with broader economic trends.14 / 100Government securities carry practically no risk of: a) Tradability b) liquidity c) default d) negotiability Explanation:Government securities are considered risk-free or gilt-edged instruments because they are backed by the government’s credit, which is generally considered to be the highest credit quality. This backing virtually eliminates the risk of default, meaning the government is highly unlikely to default on its debt obligations. Therefore, option c) default is the correct answer.15 / 100______________ risk arises from the fact that income flows received from an investment at the coupon rate may not be able to earn the same interest. a) Default risk b) Re-investment c) Credit risk d) None of the above Explanation:Re-investment risk arises when the income flows (such as coupon payments from bonds) may not be able to earn the same interest rate when reinvested.This typically happens when interest rates decline, forcing investors to reinvest at lower rates, reducing overall returns.It is a common risk in fixed-income securities like bonds and fixed deposits.Why Not Other Options?Default risk – Refers to the risk that the issuer may fail to make interest or principal payments, unrelated to reinvestment concerns.Credit risk – This is the risk of a borrower defaulting on payments due to financial instability, not reinvestment issues.None of the above – Incorrect as Re-investment risk is the right answer.16 / 100In a Nifty 50 futures contract, the underlying is: a) the top traded stocks of the Nifty 50 index b) the average price of the stocks of the Nifty 50 index c) the value of the Nifty 50 index d) All of the above Explanation:In a Nifty 50 futures contract, the underlying asset is the value of the Nifty 50 index itself. This index represents the weighted average market capitalization of the top 50 companies listed on the National Stock Exchange of India (NSE), making it the correct answer.17 / 100What defines the settlement price used to determine daily mark-to-market margins for a futures contract? a) the last traded price b) the average of the high, low and closing prices c) the weighted average price of last 30 minutes of trading d) the average of the last 60 minutes of trading Explanation:In futures contracts, the settlement price is often determined as the weighted average price of transactions during the final 30 minutes of trading. This approach helps to reduce volatility and ensures a representative closing price that reflects market consensus at the end of the trading session.18 / 100How is counterparty risk in a futures contract primarily mitigated? a) the functions of the clearing corporation b) settlement on gross basis between two parties c) collateralisation by one of the parties to the contract d) the limits on positions and trading volumes Explanation:Counterparty risk in futures contracts is primarily mitigated through the functions provided by the clearing corporation. Clearing corporations act as intermediaries, ensuring that both parties fulfill their obligations by requiring margin deposits, managing risk through daily settlement, and providing guarantees against default. This mechanism helps to safeguard against the potential failure of one party to honor its obligations under the contract.19 / 100What is the term for the feature that allows issuing firms to retire bonds before maturity by paying a specified price? a) Callability (call option) b) Putability (put option) c) Convertibility d) Redemption Explanation:Callability refers to the issuer’s right to redeem or retire bonds before their maturity date by paying a specified call price or premium to bondholders. This feature gives issuers flexibility in managing their debt obligations, particularly in changing interest rate environments or when refinancing becomes advantageous.20 / 100What characteristic typically describes the putability (put option) feature of a bond? a) Gives the bond holders the option to convert the bond into another security, typically the common stock of the firm issuing the convertible bonds b) Gives the holder the right, under certain circumstances to sell the bond back to the issuer c) Allows the issuing firms to retire the bonds before the maturity by paying a prescribed price d) Allows the investor to redeem the bond Explanation:The putability feature, also known as a put option, grants bondholders the right to sell the bond back to the issuer under specified conditions. This provides investors with an exit strategy if certain predefined events occur, such as a decline in the issuer’s credit quality or adverse market conditions.21 / 100Between which types of prices can arbitrage opportunities exist? a) Spot and futures prices b) Two futures prices c) Futures and options prices d) All of the above Explanation:Arbitrage opportunities can exist between various types of prices, including spot and futures prices, two different futures prices, and futures and options prices. Arbitrageurs seek to exploit price differentials between these markets to earn risk-free profits by simultaneously buying and selling related assets or contracts to capture inefficiencies in pricing.22 / 100What financial entity pools the savings of multiple investors who have a common financial objective? a) Custodian b) Depository c) Bank d) Mutual Fund Explanation:A mutual fund is a type of investment vehicle that pools together money from many investors to purchase securities such as stocks, bonds, and other assets. The fund is managed by professional fund managers who invest the pooled money in accordance with the fund’s stated investment objective. Investors in mutual funds share in the gains and losses of the fund’s holdings in proportion to their investment.23 / 100Which of the following are benefits of investing through mutual funds? a) Professional investment Management b) Risk reduction through diversification c) Convenience of making transactions and record keeping d) All the above Explanation:Investing through mutual funds offers several advantages, including:Professional investment management: Mutual funds are managed by experienced professionals who make investment decisions on behalf of investors.Risk reduction through diversification: Mutual funds invest in a diversified portfolio of securities, spreading risk across different asset classes and companies.Convenience of making transactions and record-keeping: Investors can buy, sell, and track their investments in mutual funds easily through various platforms and services provided by fund companies and brokers.These benefits make mutual funds a popular choice for individual investors looking to achieve diversification and professional management of their investments.24 / 100The types of securities purchased by a fund depend on _____________. a) the investment objectives of the fund b) decisions of SEBI about the fund c) decisions of RBI about the fund d) Decisions of the fund advisors Explanation:The types of securities purchased by a mutual fund or any investment fund are determined based on the investment objectives of the fund. These objectives outline the goals and strategies that the fund aims to achieve with its investments, guiding the fund manager’s decisions on asset allocation and security selection. The investment objectives typically define whether the fund will invest in stocks, bonds, money market instruments, or other types of securities, based on factors such as risk tolerance, return expectations, and time horizon.25 / 100Which type of scheme features continuous sale and purchase of units at NAV or NAV-related prices, allows investors to enter and exit at any time, and does not have a specific time frame? a) Open ended scheme b) Close ended scheme c) Interval scheme d) All the above Explanation:Open-ended schemes are mutual funds that offer continuous sale and purchase of units at Net Asset Value (NAV) or NAV-related prices. Investors can enter and exit these schemes at any time during their operation, as they do not have a fixed maturity or specific time frame. This flexibility distinguishes open-ended schemes from close-ended schemes, which have a fixed maturity period, and interval schemes, which combine features of both open and close-ended schemes with specific intervals for transactions.26 / 100The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations were introduced in the year: a) 1995 b) 1998 c) 1997 d) 1996 Explanation:The SEBI (Mutual Funds) Regulations were first introduced in 1996 by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) to regulate and oversee the operations of mutual funds in India. These regulations have since been amended and updated periodically to adapt to changes in the financial markets and to enhance investor protection and transparency in the mutual fund industry.27 / 100As per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020, the net worth requirement to be registered as a Portfolio Management Services (PMS) provider is: a) Rs. 5 crore b) Rs. 2 crore c) Rs. 50 lakhs d) Rs. 10 crore Explanation:As per SEBI (Portfolio Managers) Regulations, 2020, the minimum net worth requirement for entities to be registered as Portfolio Managers (PMS providers) is Rs. 5 crore. This financial requirement is set by SEBI to ensure that PMS providers have adequate capital to manage client portfolios and meet regulatory standards effectively.28 / 100What is a broad outline specifying the types of securities and permissible instruments for investment by a portfolio manager, tailored to specific client and securities factors? a) investment approach b) investment statement c) investment objectives d) investment profile Explanation:An investment approach is a broad outline of the type of securities and permissible instruments that a portfolio manager will use to invest on behalf of clients. This approach takes into consideration various factors specific to both clients and the securities being considered for investment.29 / 100The following is the requirement for granting the certificate of registration under Portfolio Managers Regulations 2020: a) the applicant is a body corporate; b) the applicant has the necessary infrastructure like adequate office space, equipment and the manpower to effectively discharge the activities of a portfolio manager; c) the applicant has appointed a compliance officer d) All of the above Explanation:Under SEBI’s Portfolio Managers Regulations 2020, to obtain a certificate of registration as a portfolio manager, the applicant must fulfill several criteria:The applicant must be a body corporate.The applicant must have the necessary infrastructure, including adequate office space, equipment, and manpower, to effectively carry out portfolio management activities.The applicant must appoint a compliance officer to ensure adherence to regulatory requirements and guidelines.30 / 100________________ portfolio manager manages the funds in accordance with the directions of the client. a) Non-discretionary b) Discretionary c) Advisory d) All the above Explanation:A non-discretionary portfolio manager manages funds based on specific instructions and directions provided by the client. They do not have the authority to make independent investment decisions or trades on behalf of the client without client approval. This ensures that investment decisions align closely with the client’s preferences and objectives, as specified in the client’s instructions.31 / 100The minimum investment required for PMS investment is: a) Rs. 50 lacs b) Rs. 25 Lacs c) Rs. 5 Lacs d) Rs. 100 Lacs Explanation:The minimum investment required for Portfolio Management Services (PMS) in India is Rs. 50 lakhs. This threshold is set by regulatory authorities to ensure that PMS caters to high-net-worth individuals or entities looking for personalized investment management.32 / 100The following entity is eligible to invest into PMS: a) Proprietorship firms b) Association of person c) Partnership Firms d) All of the above Explanation:In India, Portfolio Management Services (PMS) are open to various types of investors, including proprietorship firms, associations of persons, and partnership firms. These entities can invest in PMS as they are considered eligible investors under the regulatory framework. 33 / 100The following entities can invest in PMS: a) Individuals b) Non-resident Indians (as per the RBI guidelines) c) Hindu Undivided Family d) All of the above Explanation:Portfolio Management Services (PMS) in India can accept investments from individuals, Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) (subject to RBI guidelines), and Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs). All these entities are considered eligible investors under the regulatory guidelines.34 / 100Asset allocation is _____________. a) The process of dividing funds into asset classes. b) Concerned with returns variability. c) Concerned with the risk associated with different assets. d) Concerned with the relationship among investments’ returns. Explanation:Asset allocation is the process of dividing funds into different asset classes (such as stocks, bonds, real estate, etc.) to balance risk and return according to an investor’s goals, risk tolerance, and investment horizon. It is a fundamental strategy in portfolio management to diversify investments.35 / 100____________ phase is the stage when investors in their early-to-middle earning years attempt to accumulate assets to satisfy near-term needs, e.g., children’s education or down payment on a home. a) Accumulation b) Spending c) Gifting d) Consolidation Explanation:The accumulation phase is the stage when investors in their early-to-middle earning years focus on building up their assets to meet near-term needs, such as funding children’s education or saving for a down payment on a home. This phase is characterized by a focus on growing wealth.36 / 100Which of the following is a step in the portfolio management process? a) Develop a policy statement. b) Study current financial and economic conditions. c) Construct the portfolio. d) All of the above Explanation:All of the above are steps in the portfolio management process. The process includes developing a policy statement that outlines the investor’s goals and constraints, studying current financial and economic conditions to inform investment decisions, and constructing the portfolio by selecting appropriate assets to meet the investor’s objectives.37 / 100Sharpe’s performance measure divides the portfolio’s risk premium by the _________. a) Standard deviation of the rate of return b) Variance of the rate of return c) Slope of the fund's characteristic line d) Risk free rate Explanation:Sharpe’s performance measure divides the portfolio’s risk premium by the standard deviation of the rate of return. This ratio, known as the Sharpe ratio, assesses the risk-adjusted return of a portfolio by comparing the excess return (over the risk-free rate) to the total risk (volatility) of the portfolio.38 / 100Commission received from business forms part of income from ______. a) Business and profession b) Capital Gains c) Salary d) Other sources Explanation:Commission received from business forms part of income from Business and Profession. This is considered business income and is taxed accordingly under the Income Tax Act in most jurisdictions.39 / 100Record of transactions to be maintained under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act includes Cash transactions of the value of more than ________. a) Rs.10 lakh b) Rs. 20 lakh c) Rs. 25 lakh d) Rs. 1 crore Explanation:Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), records of transactions that include cash transactions of the value of more than Rs. 10 lakh must be maintained. This requirement helps in tracking large cash transactions to prevent money laundering activities.40 / 100What is the primary goal of conducting risk profiling for PMS clients? a) To intentionally forego investment diversification b) To assess an investor's risk tolerance, financial status, and investment goals c) To promise predetermined returns to investors d) To forecast stock market trends Explanation:Risk profiling is a crucial first step in PMS. It helps the portfolio manager understand the client’s: – Risk tolerance: How much risk the client is willing to take. – Financial status: Their income, assets, and liabilities. – Investment objectives: Their goals, time horizon, and specific needs41 / 100What are the characteristics of the stocks that Momentum factor funds prioritize for investment? a) High growth stocks b) Attractively valued stocks c) Stocks having low beta d) Stocks having strong upward price trend Explanation:Momentum factor funds track stocks with strong upward price trends, aiming to capitalize on continued momentum. While offering high return potential, they carry risks like volatility and market corrections.42 / 100The ‘Code of Conduct’ for portfolio managers includes which of these points? a) Portfolio Managers have to observe high standards of integrity in dealings with clients b) Portfolio Managers should not execute any trades against the interest of the clients in its proprietary account c) Portfolio Managers should obtain in writing from the client about his interests in various corporate bodies d) All of the above Explanation:Code of conduct for portfolio manager includes : A portfolio manager shall, in the conduct of his business, observe high standards of integrity and fairness in all his dealings with his clients and other portfolio manager. A portfolio manager shall not execute any trade against the interest of the clients in its proprietary account. At the time of entering into a contract, the portfolio manager shall obtain in writing from the client, his interest in various corporate bodies which enables him to obtain unpublished pricesensitive information of the body corporate.43 / 100What is the main advantage of using Time Weighted Rate of Return (TWRR) over other return measures? a) Considers only beginning and ending values b) Eliminates bias due to external cash flows c) Uses a single time period for returns d) Simplifies cash flow adjustments Explanation:Time Weighted Rate of Return (TWRR) measures the performance of an investment by removing the impact of external cash flows such as deposits and withdrawals. It breaks the investment period into smaller intervals based on when cash flows occur and calculates returns for each period separately.This ensures that the return reflects only the performance of the portfolio manager and not the timing or size of investor cash flows.Therefore, the main advantage of TWRR is that it eliminates bias caused by external cash flows and gives a true measure of investment performance.44 / 100Which bonds refer to the debt securities issued by a state to finance its capital expenditure? a) GOI securities b) Gilt-edged securities c) SDLs d) Municipal bonds Explanation:SDLs (State Development Loans) refer to the debt securities issued by a state government to finance its capital expenditure. These bonds are typically issued by state governments and are considered to be safe investments as they are backed by the government.45 / 100The securities can be issued in the primary market through ______. a) Rights Issue b) Initial public offering c) Firm allotment d) All the above Explanation:Securities can be issued in the primary market through various methods, including: Rights Issue: Issuing new shares to existing shareholders. Initial Public Offering (IPO): A company offering its shares to the public for the first time. Firm Allotment: Issuing securities directly to a specific group of investors.46 / 100What is the difference between the yield on a government security and a corporate security for the same maturity? a) The difference in interest rates between government and corporate securities b) The risk premium companies pay to raise debt c) The risk premium investors charge for bearing default risk d) All of the above Explanation:The credit spread represents three components: (1) the interest rate difference between government and corporate securities, (2) the risk premium companies pay to raise debt, and (3) the additional yield investors demand for bearing default risk. Together, they signify the perceived creditworthiness of the corporate issuer.47 / 100The stock market or secondary market ensures _______. a) Free marketability b) Price discharge c) Both 1 & 2 d) Market for IPO Explanation:The stock market or secondary market ensures both: Free marketability: Investors can easily buy and sell securities. Price discovery: The market helps determine the price of securities through supply and demand dynamics.48 / 100What does the credit spread represent? a) The difference in interest rates between government and corporate securities b) The risk premium companies pay to raise debt c) The risk premium investors charge for bearing default risk d) All of the above Explanation:The credit spread represents: The difference in interest rates between government and corporate securities: Corporate bonds usually offer higher yields than government securities to compensate for additional risks. The risk premium companies pay to raise debt: Companies with lower credit ratings must pay higher interest rates to attract investors. The risk premium investors charge for bearing default risk: Investors demand higher yields for taking on the risk of default associated with corporate debt.49 / 100The holders of which of these will be paid last in case of a company’s default? a) Senior debt b) Senior unsecured bonds c) Junior debt d) Equity Explanation:In the event of a company’s default, equity holders are paid last. The repayment hierarchy prioritizes secured debts, senior debts, and unsecured bonds before junior debts, with equity holders receiving any remaining assets only after all debts are settled.50 / 100Which of them is true concerning futures? a) Customized contract b) Traded on OTC market c) Standardized contract d) Both 2 & 3 Explanation:Futures contracts are standardized contracts that specify the terms of the agreement and are traded on organized exchanges. Unlike options or forward contracts, they are not customized and are not traded over-the-counter (OTC).51 / 100The interest rate paid on the bond is referred to as _______ payment. a) Capital appreciation b) Capital depreciation c) Principal d) Coupon Explanation:The interest rate paid on a bond, typically at regular intervals, is referred to as the coupon payment. It represents the bondholder’s return on their investment, calculated as a percentage of the bond’s face value.52 / 100A contract gives the bondholder the right to redeem the bond at a pre-fixed date before maturity. The option embedded in this contract is known as ____________. a) Convertible option b) Swaption c) Put option d) Call option Explanation:A put option in a bond gives the bondholder the right to redeem the bond at a pre-determined date before its maturity. This feature provides flexibility and protection to bondholders, allowing them to exit if interest rates rise or the issuer’s creditworthiness declines.53 / 100Bond prices behave ________ with interest rates. a) Normally b) Parallel c) Inversely d) Equally Explanation:Bond prices move inversely with interest rates. When interest rates rise, bond prices fall, and when interest rates fall, bond prices rise. This relationship exists because the fixed coupon payments of a bond become more or less attractive relative to the new interest rates.54 / 100In which situation are the Callable Bonds likely to be “Called”? a) When the interest rate is high b) When the interest rate is lower than the coupon rate c) When the callable bond trades at Par d) When the callable bond trades below Par Explanation:Callable bonds are likely to be “called” when interest rates fall below the bond’s coupon rate. This allows the issuer to refinance the debt at a lower interest rate, saving on interest expenses.55 / 100In India, ______ day count convention is followed in the Money Market. a) Actual/365 b) 30/360 c) Actual/360 d) 30/Actual Explanation:In India, the Actual/365 day count convention is followed in the money market, where the actual number of days in the period is divided by 365 for calculating interest.56 / 100____ is a contract that gives the holder the right to purchase or sell the underlying security at a specified price within a specified period. a) Options contract b) Futures contract c) Forward Contract d) Swap contract Explanation:An options contract provides the holder the right (but not the obligation) to buy or sell the underlying security at a pre-agreed price within a specified time frame, offering flexibility and risk management.57 / 100Which contracts are bilateral agreements in which a party can purchase or sell assets at a certain price on a specific future date? a) Forwards b) Futures c) Swaps d) Options Explanation:Forwards are private, bilateral agreements where two parties agree to buy or sell an asset at a specified price on a future date. Unlike futures, they are not standardized and are traded over the counter (OTC).58 / 100In an Options contract, the counterparty with an obligation to execute the option is __________. a) Option buyer b) Option seller c) Underwriter d) Settlement Agency Explanation:The option seller (also known as the writer) has the obligation to execute the option if the buyer chooses to exercise it. The seller earns a premium for taking on this obligation.59 / 100A deemed resident is always treated as a non-ordinarily resident. a) True b) false Explanation:A deemed resident under the Income Tax Act is always treated as a non-ordinarily resident (NOR) for the purposes of tax residency.60 / 100Which one of these is a person as per the Income-tax Act, 1961? a) Hindu undivided family (HUF) b) Company c) Local authority d) All of these Explanation:As per the Income-tax Act, 1961, the term “person” includes an individual, Hindu Undivided Family (HUF), company, firm, association of persons (AOP), body of individuals (BOI), local authority, and other similar entities.61 / 100An individual is treated as a resident in India if he stays in India for _______ or more in 4 years preceding the previous year. a) 182 days b) 365 days c) 312 days d) 275 days Explanation:An individual is treated as a resident in India if they stay in India for 365 days or more in the 4 years preceding the previous year.62 / 100An Indian citizen, who is not a resident under Section 6(1), shall be deemed to be resident in India during the previous year if his Indian income during that year exceeds _______ and he is not liable to pay tax in any other country. a) Rs. 10 lakhs b) Rs. 20 lakhs c) Rs. 15 lakhs d) Rs. 25 lakhs Explanation:According to Section 6(1) of the Income Tax Act, an Indian citizen, who is not a resident under Section 6(1), will be deemed a resident in India if his Indian income exceeds Rs. 15 lakhs in the previous year and he is not liable to pay tax in any other country.63 / 100Companies can issue securities by way of __________. a) Initial Public Offering (IPO) b) Rights Issue c) Bonus Issue d) All of these Explanation:Companies can issue securities through various methods, including Initial Public Offering (IPO), Rights Issue, and Bonus Issue, depending on the capital-raising strategy and the needs of the company.64 / 100The losses can be carried forward for ______ only in case of speculative business losses. a) 8 years b) 7 years c) 4 years d) 5 years Explanation:Speculative business losses can be carried forward and set off only for 4 years under the Income Tax Act, 1961, against speculative business income.65 / 100The modified duration is used to measure _______. a) Credit risk b) Exchange rate risk c) Interest rate risk d) Systematic risk Explanation:Modified duration is primarily used to measure interest rate risk, which reflects how sensitive a bond’s price is to changes in interest rates. The higher the modified duration, the more sensitive the bond is to interest rate fluctuations.66 / 100The losses can be carried forward for ______ only in case of non-speculative business losses. a) 7 years b) 4 years c) 5 years d) 8 years Explanation:Non-speculative business losses can be carried forward for 8 years under the Income Tax Act, 1961, and set off against future business income.67 / 100Which of the following is correct for Modified Duration? a) Percentage change in yield concerning change in maturity b) Percentage change in price concerning change in maturity c) Modified Duration is linear d) Percentage change in price concerning change in yield Explanation:Modified Duration measures the sensitivity of a bond’s price to changes in yield. It is the percentage change in the bond’s price for a 1% change in yield, providing a linear approximation of price change with respect to yield changes.68 / 100Which fee is payable to registrars and transfer agents for effecting the transfer of securities and bonds? a) Investment management and advisory fee b) Custodian fee / Depository fee c) Registrar and Transfer agent fee d) Brokerage and transaction costs Explanation:The Registrar and Transfer agent fee is payable to registrars and transfer agents for effecting the transfer of securities and bonds. This fee covers the cost of maintaining records, transferring ownership, and other administrative tasks related to securities.69 / 100What is the most meaningful way to reduce risk in stocks? a) Market Timing b) Sector concentration c) Diversification d) Short-selling Explanation:Diversification is the most meaningful way to reduce risk in stocks. By spreading investments across different assets, sectors, or geographies, you can reduce the impact of any single investment’s poor performance on the overall portfolio.70 / 100How can cross-sectional risk diversification be achieved in equity investment? a) Investing in a single sector b) Holding equities in various business sectors and industries c) Focusing on one geographic location d) Timing the market effectively Explanation:Cross-sectional risk diversification in equity investment can be achieved by holding equities across different sectors and industries. This helps to spread risk, as the performance of different sectors and industries is often not correlated, reducing the impact of a downturn in any single sector.71 / 100Why is “time in the market” suggested for equity investment rather than “timing the market”? a) Timing the market is more profitable b) Bad times are believed to be canceled out by good times over the long term c) Timing the market reduces the impact of business cycles d) Investing for a short period is less risky Explanation:Equity markets are volatile in the short term, making it difficult to consistently predict market movements. By staying invested for a longer period, investors benefit from the overall growth of the market, where short-term fluctuations tend to even out over time. Therefore, “time in the market” is preferred over “timing the market.”72 / 100Which cost is part of the acquisition cost/sale realization and includes charges such as STT and stamp duty? a) Investment management and advisory fee b) Custodian fee / Depository fee c) Registrar and Transfer agent fee d) Brokerage and transaction costs Explanation:Brokerage and transaction costs are part of the acquisition cost or sale realization and include charges like Securities Transaction Tax (STT), stamp duty, and other related transaction expenses when buying or selling securities.73 / 100Which charges are payable for outsourced professional services like fund accounting, taxation, and auditing? a) Certification charges, Fund Accounting charges, and Professional fees b) Investment management and advisory fee c) Registrar and Transfer agent fee d) Out of Pocket and Other Incidental Expenses Explanation:Certification charges, fund accounting charges, and professional fees are payable for outsourced professional services like fund accounting, taxation, and auditing. These costs are associated with hiring external experts to manage specific functions related to fund management and compliance.74 / 100Which charges are associated with day-to-day operations and include expenses like service tax, telephone expenses, and statutory levies? a) Certification charges, Fund Accounting charges, and Professional fee b) Investment management and advisory fee c) Out-of-Pocket and Other Incidental Expenses d) Custodian fee / Depository fee Explanation:Out-of-Pocket and Other Incidental Expenses are associated with day-to-day operations and include costs like service tax, telephone expenses, statutory levies, and other minor operational charges necessary for managing the business on a daily basis.75 / 100What term is used to describe risks that are specific to a particular sector or industry? a) Market risks b) Systemic risks c) Idiosyncratic risks d) Macroeconomic risks Explanation:Idiosyncratic risks refer to risks that are specific to a particular sector, industry, or company. These risks are unique to the asset or group of assets and are not related to the overall market or economy.76 / 100In which types of businesses is the Asset-Based valuation methodology commonly used? a) Technology companies b) Manufacturing industries c) Financial institutions, real estate, and precious metals businesses d) Service-oriented businesses Explanation:Asset-Based valuation methodology is commonly used in businesses where the value is derived from the assets themselves, such as in financial institutions, real estate, and precious metals businesses. This approach focuses on valuing the company’s assets, like property or physical holdings, rather than its earning potential.77 / 100According to the Asset-Based valuation methodology, what is the value of equity? a) Value of all outsider liabilities b) Adjusted current market values of Net Tangible, Intangible, Financial, and Net Current Assets c) Future profits and cashflows d) Value of the firm less value of all outsider liabilities Explanation:According to the Asset-Based valuation methodology, the value of equity is determined by subtracting the value of all outside liabilities (such as debts and obligations) from the total value of the firm’s assets. This gives the net value attributable to the shareholders.78 / 100In what way does the Asset-Based valuation methodology fall short? a) It overemphasizes the value of research and innovation b) It doesn't account for the fair market value of assets c) It neglects the potential value creation from future profits and innovation d) It underestimates the value of tangible assets Explanation:The Asset-Based valuation methodology primarily focuses on the current value of a company’s assets and liabilities. It falls short because it does not consider the potential for future profits, innovation, or other value-creating opportunities that may drive the company’s growth in the future.79 / 100What distinguishes zero coupon bonds from other bonds? a) They have a fixed coupon rate b) They make semi-annual coupon payments c) They are issued at a premium d) They do not make any coupon payments Explanation:Zero-coupon bonds are distinguished from other bonds because they do not make any periodic coupon payments. Instead, they are issued at a discount to their face value and pay the full face value at maturity, with the difference representing the interest earned.80 / 100What determines the market price of a bond? a) The face value of the bond b) The coupon rate c) The prevailing market interest rate compared to the bond's coupon rate d) The redemption value Explanation:The market price of a bond is determined by the relationship between the bond’s coupon rate and the prevailing market interest rate. If the coupon rate is higher than market rates, the bond trades at a premium, while if it is lower, the bond trades at a discount.81 / 100What is a significant limitation of the Asset-Based valuation approach mentioned in the passage? a) It overvalues future profits b) It underestimates the value of tangible assets c) It does not recognize the value of future profits and cashflows d) It only considers financial assets Explanation:A significant limitation of the Asset-Based valuation approach is that it focuses solely on the current value of assets and liabilities, without considering the potential for future profits and cash flows, which may be crucial for a more comprehensive valuation of the business.82 / 100Why is it called “Yield to Call” in bonds with an embedded call feature? a) It indicates the yield at which the bond will be redeemed at maturity b) It measures the yield based on the market interest rates c) It calculates the yield until the bond is called by the issuer d) It estimates the yield considering the face value of the bond Explanation:Yield to Call (YTC) is the yield calculation for bonds with an embedded call feature. It estimates the return an investor would earn if the bond is called (redeemed) by the issuer before its maturity, based on the call date and the call price.83 / 100What assumption does Yield-to-maturity computation implicitly make regarding coupon cash flows? a) All coupon cash flows will be reinvested at rates above yield to maturity b) All coupon cash flows will be reinvested at rates equal to yield to maturity c) All coupon cash flows will be reinvested at rates below yield to maturity d) Coupon cash flows are not impacted by changes in interest rates Explanation:The computation of Yield-to-Maturity (YTM) assumes that all coupon payments received over the life of the bond are reinvested at the same rate as the YTM, which is a key factor in determining the bond’s total return.84 / 100What is the primary objective of arbitrageurs? a) To create price differentials between two markets b) To increase transaction costs in the market c) To maintain a gap in prices between two markets d) To identify and reduce price differentials in two markets Explanation:The primary objective of arbitrageurs is to exploit price differences for the same or similar assets in different markets. Their activities help align prices, reducing price differentials and increasing market efficiency.85 / 100What does “Call Price” refer to in the context of bonds with a call feature? a) The face value of the bond b) The market price of the bond c) The price and date at which a bond can be repaid prior to maturity d) The price at which the bond is sold in the secondary market Explanation:The Call Price refers to the predetermined price at which the issuer can redeem a bond before its maturity date, as specified in the bond’s terms. This feature allows the issuer to refinance the bond if interest rates decline.86 / 100How does an increase in interest rates affect the value of a bond, according to the passage? a) Increases the value of the bond b) Has no impact on the value of the bond c) Results in a fall in the value of the bond d) Causes the bond to mature early Explanation:When interest rates increase, the value of existing bonds decreases because their fixed coupon payments become less attractive compared to the higher yields available on newly issued bonds. This inverse relationship between interest rates and bond prices is a fundamental principle of bond valuation.87 / 100Identify the entity which is currently NOT a KYC Registration Agency? a) CDSL Ventures Limite b) NSDL Database Management Limited c) Computer Age Management Services Limited (CAMS) d) HDFC Ventures ltd Explanation:Currently there are 5 KYC Registration Agencies in India viz. –1. Computer Age Management Services Limited (CAMS)2. NSDL Database Management Limited3. Karvy Data Management Services (KFintech)4. Dotex International Limited 5. CDSL Ventures Limited88 / 100Debt funds have _______ . a) Default risk b) Interest rate risk c) Both of the above d) None of the above Explanation:Investing in debt funds carries various types of risk. These risks include Credit risk (Default Risk), Interest rate risk, Inflation risk, reinvestment risk etc. Credit Risk (Default Risk): The chances that a borrower might not repay the interest or principle on the committed date is considered as credit risk or default risk. Interest rate risk : Market price of the bond and interest rates carry opposite relationship. Whenever interest rates in the market go up, the market prices of bond come down89 / 100What is Reinvestment Risk, as described in the passage? a) Risk associated with the initial investment in bonds b) Risk related to the decline in market interest rates c) Risk of not being able to reinvest the intermittent cash flows (coupons) at yields prevalent at the time of making the investment due to either decrease or increase in interest rates prevailing at the time of receipt of cash flows d) Risk associated with the face value of bonds Explanation:Reinvestment risk arises when the cash flows from a bond, such as coupon payments, cannot be reinvested at the original yield due to changes in prevailing interest rates, potentially affecting the total return on the investment.90 / 100What does the law of one price state, as mentioned in the passage? a) two goods (assets) that are identical, cannot trade at different prices in two different markets b) Prices in different markets must always be different c) Price differentials in two markets are unavoidable d) The cost of goods is the same in all markets Explanation:The law of one price states that identical goods or assets should have the same price in different markets when there are no frictions such as transportation costs or trade barriers. Arbitrage opportunities ensure price convergence across markets.91 / 100Why is the Free Cash Flow to Equity – FCFE model particularly relevant when valuing highly leveraged businesses? a) It disregards the influence of debt financing b) It overlooks investments in capital assets and reinvested earnings c) It factors in debt servicing and financial leverage directly d) It solely relies on the dividends distributed by the company Explanation:The Free Cash Flow to Equity (FCFE) model is particularly useful for leveraged firms because it explicitly considers the impact of debt financing. It calculates the cash available to equity shareholders after accounting for:Operating cash flowsCapital expenditures (CapEx)Debt repayments and new borrowingsThis makes FCFE a strong valuation tool for firms with high leverage, as it adjusts for financial obligations before determining shareholder value.92 / 100What is the rationale behind requiring portfolio managers to hold client funds in a scheduled commercial bank? a) This ensures more security and liquidity b) This maximizes earnings from interest c) Portfolio managers can take loans against portfolios d) This helps in easy and direct stock trading Explanation:SEBI regulations require portfolio managers to keep client funds in a scheduled commercial bank to ensure: Liquidity – Funds must be readily available for investments and withdrawals as per the client’s needs. Security – Scheduled commercial banks are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI), ensuring the safety of client funds. Transparency – Keeping funds in regulated banks helps maintain proper records and prevents misuse.93 / 100What is the minimum holding period for listed equity investments in a PMS to be considered long-term capital assets under Indian Income Tax law? a) More than 12 months b) More than 15 months c) More than 24 months d) Less than 12 months Explanation:Under the Indian Income Tax Act, the holding period for listed equity investments (including those held in a Portfolio Management Service or PMS) to qualify as long-term capital assets is more than 12 months. If the holding period is 12 months or less, the investment is classified as a short-term capital asset.94 / 100How extensive should enhanced due diligence be for high-risk clients, in compliance with the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA)? a) Refrain from transactions exceeding Rs. 10 lakh b) Simplify Know Your Customer (KYC) processes to accelerate transactions c) Confirm ownership, source of funds and financial standing d) Dispose only basic client information Explanation:Under the Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA), enhanced due diligence (EDD) is required for high-risk clients to prevent illicit financial activities. This involves: Checking Ownership – Ensuring the client is the legitimate owner of the assets. Checking Fund Source – Identifying where the funds originate to detect suspicious activities. Assessing Financial Position – Ensuring the client’s financial activities align with their declared income and business.95 / 100What is the significance of distinguishing between high and low priority investment goals? a) This is for focusing on high priority goals only b) This is for focusing on low priority goals only c) This is for devising strategies and planning the allocation accordingly d) This is to avoid diversification in the portfolio Explanation:Differentiating between high and low-priority goals helps in allocating resources efficiently, choosing the right investment strategies, and balancing risk and return.Prioritization and Resource Allocation:– High-priority goals (e.g., retirement, children’s education) typically require larger investments and a more conservative approach.– Low-priority goals (e.g., a vacation, a new gadget) might be funded with smaller, more flexible investments.– Differentiating allows for tailored investment strategies and asset allocations to match the importance and timeline of each goal.96 / 100Which kinds of beneficial interests are required to be disclosed by portfolio managers to their clients? a) Bonus shares and Rights shares b) Dividend and Interest c) All of the above d) None of the above Explanation:A Portfolio Manager is required to report all beneficial interests that arise from the investments managed on behalf of the client. These include:1. Interest and Dividend – Earnings received from bonds, fixed-income securities, and dividendpaying stocks2. Bonus Shares and Right Shares – Additional shares allotted to investors due to corporate actions.Since both categories constitute financial benefits to the client, the portfolio manager must report both.97 / 100In which way is Portfolio Management Services (PMS) different from mutual funds? a) PMS caters solely to the investment needs of institutional clients b) PMS provides personalized and customized investment strategies tailored to individual client needs c) PMS structures investments without granting clients direct asset ownership d) PMS does not involve active oversight by professional investment managers Explanation:The key difference is Customization.PMS : Offers highly customized investment portfolios tailored to individual investor’s specific needs, risk tolerance, and financial goals.Mutual Funds : Provide standardized investment portfolios that follow a predetermined investment objective98 / 100What are the essential responsibilities of portfolio managers under the Investor Charter? a) Inform clients and publish on the company website b) Provide only when requested by clients c) Maintain confidentiality for internal compliance purposes d) Submit exclusively to SEBI Explanation:Portfolio managers are required to inform their clients about the Investor Charter and make it publicly accessible by displaying it on their website. This ensures transparency and helps investors understand their rights, obligations, and grievance redressal mechanisms.99 / 100What is one of the primary benefits of asset allocation for a portfolio? a) Asset allocation generates Alpha b) Asset allocation guarantees a fixed return c) Asset allocation is for regulatory compliance d) Asset allocation helps to manage risks Explanation:Asset allocation involves spreading investments across different asset classes (e.g., stocks, bonds, gold, real estate) with varying risk and return characteristics. This diversification helps to reduce the overall risk of the portfolio. If one asset class performs poorly, others may perform well, offsetting the losses.100 / 100Who appoints a Compliance Officer ? a) The Portfolio Manager b) SEBI c) Both of the above d) Either the Portfolio Manager or SEBI Explanation:Every portfolio manager shall appoint a Compliance Officer who shall be responsible for monitoring the compliance of the Act, rules and regulations, notifications, guidelines, instructions etc., issued by SEBI or the Central Government and for redressal of investors’ grievances. The compliance officer shall immediately and independently report to SEBI any non- compliance observed.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit