NISM Series - I Currency Derivatives Cert. - Full-Length Test/100 NISM Series – I Currency Derivatives Cert. – Full-Length Test 1 / 100Which of the following example is that of Market Making ? a) A real estate agent quoting a price to sell a bunglow b) A jewellery store owner quoting a price to buy old jewellery and also quoting a price to sell new jewellery c) A wholesale fruit vendor quoting price to sell fruits at low prices d) A steel junk dealer quoting price to buy a very old car Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:The mechanism of quoting price for both buying and selling is called as market making.2 / 100With respect to trading time for the world’s major currencies in the OTC market, which of the following statements is TRUE? a) Currencies are traded as per the permitted time of the respective countries b) Currencies are traded across time zones c) None of the above Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:For currency market, the concept of a 24-hour market has become a reality. In financial centers around the world, business hours overlap; as some centers close, others open and begin to trade3 / 100When a person buys a put option, it means that he is buying a right to sell the underlying asset – State True or False? a) True b) False Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:In a Put Option, the buyer has the right to sell an agreed quantity of the underlying asset.Only in a Call Option, the buyer has the right to buy an agreed quantity of a asset .4 / 100Mr. Pritam from India invested USD 20,000 in US equity markets at an exchange rate of 60 for USDINR. After a year, these investments grew to USD 23,000. Mr. Pritam then sold off the entire investments and repatriated his money to India. He found that his effective return (profit) was 20%. Calculate the exchange rate at which Mr. Pritam received when he repatriated the money to India. a) 62.61 b) 61.77 c) 60.56 d) 59.80 Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:Mr. Pritam invested 20000 USD x 60 (Exchange Price) = Rs. 12,00,000His return on this investment was 20%So 20% of Rs 12 lacs = Rs 240000So he repatriated to India Rs 1200000 + Rs 240000 = Rs 14,40,00014,40,000 Divided by USD 23000 = 62.61So the exchange rate on repatriation was 62.615 / 100Mr. Singh executes the following currency futures trade – buys USDINR and sells EURINR for an equivalent amount. What view has Mr. Singh expressed? a) EUR depreciating against USD b) INR appreciating against USD c) INR depreciating against USD d) EUR appreciating against USD Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:Buying USDINR – view is USD appreciating against INRSelling EURINR – View is EUR depreciating against INRCombined view – USD appreciating against EUR or EUR depreciating against USD6 / 100An Indian company has both imports and exports in GBP of equal amounts. However, the export realization comes a week after the payments are made for imports. Which type of currency risk is the company facing? a) Risk of INR depreciation b) Risk of forward premia c) Risk of INR appreciation d) There is no currency risk Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:Lets assume the GBPINR rate is 80 and the export and imports are 1000 GBPThe company makes payments for imports at GBPINR 80 x 1000 = Rs. 80,000After a week if INR appreciates, the GBPINR rate becomes say 78. So it will receive for its exports 78 x 1000 = Rs. 78000So it will receive less amount than it has paid for imports.7 / 100What is the simultaneous buying and selling of EURINR futures contract across two different maturities called? a) Speculative Trading b) Hedge Trading c) Spread Trading d) Arbitrage Trading Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:An intra-currency pair SPREAD consists of one long futures and one short futures contract. Both have the same underlying but different maturities.8 / 100A trader sees that 3 month USDINR forward is quoting at 65.5 while futures are quoting at 65.8. So he sells in futures and buys in the forward market. Determine the type of market participant would this trader be? a) He is an arbitrageur b) He is a technical analyst c) He is hedger d) He is a speculator Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:Arbitrageurs are market participants who identify mispricing in the market and use it for making profit.Arbitrageurs lock in a profit by simultaneously entering opposite side transactions in two or more markets.9 / 100Ms. Mamta buys 10 lots of USDINR 1 month futures when the price was 65.00/65.10 and squares off 5 lots after a week when the price was 65.15/65.35. What were her profits or losses? a) 500 b) – 500 c) 1250 d) 250 Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:When the Buy/Sell quote is 65.00/65.10, one has to buy at 65.10When the Buy/Sell quote is 65.15/65.35, one has to sell at 65.15Therefore : Purchase price is 65.10 and Sale Price is 65.15Profit = .05The profit has to be calculated only on the squared off trade ie. 5 lots.05 x 5 Lots x 1000 (lot size)= 250 Profit10 / 100______ is TRUE for Exchange Traded Derivatives. a) Decentralized counter party credit risk management b) It is only available in stocks and currencies c) Centralized trade settlement d) Bilateral trade settlement Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:For exchange traded derivative contracts, the Clearing Corporation acts as a central counterparty to all trades.The key difference being that exchange traded derivatives are standardized, more transparent, the counterparty risk is borne by a centralized corporation with stringent margining systems while OTC contracts are customized, opaque in pricing, risk management is decentralized and individual institutions/ clients take counterparty risk of each other.11 / 100To act on the belief that GBPUSD will rise from 1.75 to 1.79 in the next month using currency futures contracts of GBPINR and USDINR, what would you do? a) Long GBPINR, Short USDINR b) Long GBPINR c) Short GBPINR, Long USDINR d) Short GBPINR Explanation:GBPUSD moving from 1.75 to 1.79 means GBP becoming stronger against USD. So he will buy GBPINR and Sell USDINR. 12 / 100At the close of the trading day, a trading member has clients ‘A’ and ‘B’ with 5000 USD short position and 4000 USD long position, respectively, in the currency futures segment. In the currency option segment, client ‘C’ has a 2000 USD long position. What is the total open position for the trading member when considering all these positions for monitoring? a) 3000 USD b) 1000 short for currency futures and 2000 long for currency options c) 9000 USD d) 11000 USD Explanation:Gross open position for the trading member for the purpose of monitoring open position is the sum of all open positions of all the clients.In the above example :Client A has 5000 USD openClient B has 4000 USD openClient C has 2000 USD openSo total 11000 USD open 13 / 100A trader makes the following currency futures trade: buys one lot of EUR/INR and sells one lot of JPY/INR. What trading strategy or view has the trader executed? a) INR strengthening against EUR b) JPY weakening against EUR c) INR weakening against JPY d) JPY strengthening against EUR Explanation:Buying EURINR – view is strengthening of EUR against INRSelling JPYINR – view is weakening of JPY against INRTaking a collective view – JPY weakening against EUR. 14 / 100A certain percentage of the public representatives on the Governing Council of the currency futures segment can be shared with the Governing Council of the cash/equity derivatives segments of the Exchange. a) 50% b) 35% c) 25% d) 40% Explanation:In managed float, countries have controls on flow of capital and central bank intervention is a common tool to contain sharp volatility and direction of currency movement. 15 / 100Despite expectations of INR weakening due to overnight global factors, it strengthened during the day’s trading. What factor below could contribute to the appreciation of INR? a) Banking holidays for the next two days b) Weak Indian Stock Markets c) Huge political unrest in India d) Central Banks intervention Explanation:Central Bank – RBI can buy / sell a lot of currencies in the best interest of the country / economic situation and this can change the normal market movements of currencies. 16 / 100An ‘Immediate or Cancel’ order is an order which is valid for the day on which it is entered and if the order is not executed during the day, the system cancels the order automatically at the end of the day – True or False ? a) False b) True Explanation:In a Day Order – the system cancels the unexecuted order automatically at the end of the day.An ‘Immediate or Cancel’ (IOC) order is an order to buy or sell a security immediately – and if that order is not executed immediately it will be cancelled.For eg – A trader enters an IOC order to buy 1000 shares of XYZ Ltd at Rs 100. If at that time there are sellers of 200 shares only at Rs 100, the trader will get the 200 shares and the balance order of 800 shares will get cancelled immediately. 17 / 100A trader sells 20 lots of USDINR September futures at 83.20 and closes this position after INR depreciates by 60 ticks. What is the resulting profit or loss for this trade? a) Loss of Rs 3000 b) Loss of Rs 300 c) Profit of Rs 300 d) Profit of Rs 3000 Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:INR has depreciated which means the price of USDINR will rise. As the trader has sold USDINR he will face losses in this situation.Tick Size is Rs .002560 Ticks X .0025 = 0.15 X 20 lots X 1000 ( Lot size of USDINR)= Rs 3000 loss. 18 / 100Maximum trading volumes occur when multiple financial markets are open simultaneously. a) Europe , Japan b) Europe, USA c) India , USA d) Japan , India Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:In managed float, countries have controls on flow of capital and central bank intervention is a common tool to contain sharp volatility and direction of currency movement. 19 / 100As per the guidelines issued regarding permissions for trading in the ‘PRO ACCOUNT’ by the trading member, which of the following statements is true? a) Pro Account orders can be entered from any ten locations as approved by the trading member / broker. b) Pro Account orders can be entered from many locations as approved by the trading member / broker. c) Pro Account orders can be entered from any five locations as approved by the Exchange d) Pro Account orders can be entered from more than one locations as approved by the Exchange Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:When a Trading Member requires the facility of using ‘Pro-account’ through trading terminals from more than one location, such Trading Member shall request the Exchange stating the reason for using the ‘Pro-account’ at multiple locations.The Exchange may, on a case to case basis after due diligence, consider extending the facility of allowing use of ‘Pro-account’ from more than one location. 20 / 100Which of these statements accurately describes the relationship between the limit price and trigger price for a stop loss BUY order? a) Trigger price is less than limit price b) Trigger price is equal to limit price c) Trigger price is more than limit price d) No relationship Your answer is IncorrectYour answer is correctExplanation:For the stop loss buy order, the trigger price has to be less than the limit priceFor e.g. If for stop-loss buy order, the trigger is Rs 64.0025, the limit price is Rs 64.2575, then this order is released into the system once the market price reaches or exceeds Rs 64.0025. This order is added to the regular lot book with time of triggering as the time stamp, as a limit order of Rs 64.2575. 21 / 100What is the process of actual pay-in / pay-out of mark-to-market margin or profit / loss on cancellation or on maturity of futures contract called ? a) MTM b) Clearing c) Pay in / Pay out d) Settlement Explanation:Clearing means computing open positions and obligations of clearing members in the trading system. Whereas, settlement means actual pay in or pay out to settle the contract.22 / 100Mr. Amit sells a USD put option at a strike of 66 and receives a premium of INR 0.4. What would be the break-even point for the two transactions? a) 65.60 b) 66.40 c) 66 d) 65.40 Explanation:The breakeven point for a short put is the strike price of the option minus the premium. So 66 – 0.40 = 65.60 (In easier terms, when a person sells PUT, he has a bullish view and believes that price will rise. He has bought at 66 and he receives .40 premium so his buying price reduces by .40, i.e., 65.60, which is the break-even price.23 / 100A trader takes a long position in USDINR futures contract at a price of 65 by buying 40 lots. On expiry of the contract, the settlement price was 65.40. What is his profit or loss? a) Loss of Rs 16000 b) Profit of Rs 16000 c) Loss of Rs 1600 d) Profit of Rs 1600 Explanation:The trader buys at 65 and sells at 65.40 (Settlement Price). So the profit is 0.40 0.40 x 40 lots x 1000 (lot size) = Rs 16000 profit24 / 100The current EURINR spot is 80. The current future price of EUR is at a premium to INR. A trader believes that on expiry of one month EURINR futures, the spot may remain at 80. What currency futures trade strategy would be profitable to the trader if his views comes correct? a) Sell EURINR for one month and buy for 2 month b) Buy EURINR for one month and sell for 2 month c) Buy EURINR d) Sell EURINR Explanation:On expiry the spot and future prices tend to merge ie. become same. So the trader should sell the EURINR future which are at a premium (lets assume it at 83) to spot price (80). On expiry, the future price will be around 80 and he will square up his position and make a profit (83 – 80 = 3).25 / 100_______ has issued guidance notes on accounting of index futures contracts from the viewpoint of parties who enter into such futures contracts as buyers or sellers. a) SEBI b) RBI c) CRISIL d) ICAI Explanation:ICAI – The Institute of Chartered Accountants of India26 / 100An Indian investor has invested Rs 390000 in US securities. At the time of investment, the exchange rate was 65. Two years later he noticed that his investments have gained 25% in USD terms and liquidated his investments. He repatriated the money to India at the then-existing rate of Rs 62. What would be his real returns (returns in INR terms)? a) 18.56% b) 19.23% c) 20.87% d) 21.30% Explanation:The investor invested Rs 390000 in US Stock when the USDINR rate was 65 So he had invested 390000 / 65 = 6000 Dollars in US Stocks. His investment grew by 25% : 6000 x 25% = 6000 + 1500 = 7500 He is repatriating at USDINR rate of 62 : 7500 x 62 = 465000 Therefore his investment in INR terms have grown from Rs 390000 to Rs 465000 465000 x 100 / 390000 = 119.23 This is an increase of 19.23 %27 / 100Mr. Vaibhav believes that USDINR will appreciate, and accordingly, he enters into a derivative contract to execute his view of appreciating USDINR. His view proved correct but he observed that his profits are not increasing along with the USDINR appreciation. What type of derivative contract would he have entered in ? a) Long Call option b) Long Put Option c) Short Call option d) Short Put option Explanation:Buying a call option or selling a put option – both have a similar view ie. appreciation of the underlying.However in Selling a Put option, the gains are limited to the premium received.So Mr. Vaibhav must have shorted a Put Option and received the premium. Now even if the USDINR appreciates by a huge extent, his profits will be restricted to the premium received.If he had gone long on a call option, he would have paid a premium buy his gains would have been much more in co-relation to the rise in USDINR.28 / 100What is true with respect to Governing Council of currency futures segment of an exchange ? a) Governing council of currency futures and equity derivative /cash segment can have maximum 25% common members b) Governing council of currency futures and equity derivative /cash segment can have maximum 40% common members c) Governing council of currency futures and equity derivative /cash segment can have maximum 50% common members d) Governing council of currency futures and equity derivative /cash segment can have maximum 10% common members Explanation:The currency futures segment of the Exchange should have a separate Governing Council on which the representation of Trading /Clearing Members of the currency futures segment should not exceed 25%. Further, 50% of the public representatives on the Governing Council of the currency futures segment can be common with the Governing Council of the cash/equity derivatives segments of the Exchange.29 / 100A ‘DERIVATIVE PRODUCT’ can be best described as a ______ a) complex product which is traded only amongst banks and large institutions b) product whose value is derived from value of one or more underlying variables c) product which can be from Equity / Currency or Commodity markets and are traded on a recognised stock exchange Explanation:A derivative is a product whose value is derived from the value of one or more basic variables, called bases (underlying asset, index, or reference rate).The underlying asset can be equity, foreign exchange, a commodity, or any other asset. It can be traded on an exchange or OTC.30 / 100If a person has bearish view on USDINR, which would be the appropriate strategy for the objective of maximizing the profit ? a) Buy USD Call option b) Sell USD Call option c) Buy USD Put option d) Sell USD Put option Explanation:When a person is bearish, he can either sell a call option or buy a put option. But in the case of selling a call option, his profits will be limited to the extent of the premium received. So in the above case, where the trader wishes to maximise his profits, buying a Put Option is the best alternative.Please note : Buying Call – Bullish view Selling Call – Bearish / Neutral view Buying Put – Bearish view Selling Put – Bullish / Neutral view31 / 100Mr. Amit is working with a currency broking house is an expert in currency movements. As per his view, INR should appreciate against EUR in next 6 months and accordingly he advised some of his clients to take a short position by selling EUR against INR and also he guaranteed against any losses. The manager of the employee takes an action against Mr. Amit for violating some trading guidelines. What should Mr. Amit have done to avoid the punishment? a) Amit should have advised the clients correctly to take short position for 1 months and not 6 months as 6 month is a long period b) Amit should have also clearly mentioned the risk to his view c) Amit should not have guaranteed against losses d) Amit should have advised the clients correctly to take short position for 12 months and not 6 months as 6 month is a short period Explanation:Exchange regulations specify codes of conduct related to the currency derivatives segment. All trading members must comply with these. One of the code of conduct is : – No Trading Member or person associated with the Trading Member shall guarantee a client against a loss in any transactions effected by the Trading Member for such client.32 / 100As a trader, you believe USDJPY will move from 90 to 95 in the next one month. You are a trader based in India where there is no trading in USDJPY. Therefore which of the following would you do to execute this view using currency future contracts of JPYINR and USDINR? a) Short JPYINR and Long USDINR b) Short USDINR and Long JPYINR c) Short JPYINR d) Long JPYINR Explanation:This strategy involves selling Japanese Yen (JPY) against Indian Rupee (INR) and buying US Dollars (USD) against Indian Rupee (INR). Here’s the rationale behind this strategy: 1. Short JPYINR: By selling JPYINR futures contracts, you’re essentially betting that the value of Japanese Yen will decrease relative to Indian Rupee. This aligns with your belief that USDJPY will move from 90 to 95, as a decrease in JPYINR indicates the depreciation of Japanese Yen against Indian Rupee. 2. Long USDINR: Buying USDINR futures contracts means you’re expecting the value of US Dollar to increase compared to Indian Rupee. As you anticipate USDJPY to move from 90 to 95, an increase in USDINR reflects the appreciation of US Dollar against Indian Rupee. By combining these positions, you’re effectively capturing both aspects of your view on USDJPY: the expected depreciation of Japanese Yen against Indian Rupee and the anticipated appreciation of US Dollar against Indian Rupee. Therefore, this strategy allows you to profit from the expected movement of USDJPY from 90 to 95 within the next one month, despite not having direct access to trade USDJPY in India.33 / 100If more than one contract in a series is outstanding at the time of expiry/squaring off, the contract price of the contract so squared off should be determined using __________ method for calculating profit/loss on squaring up. a) Low price first b) LIFO c) FIFO d) High price first Explanation:If more than one contract in a series are outstanding at the time of expiry/ squaring off, the contract price of the contract so squared off should be determined using First-in, First-out (FIFO) method for calculating profit/loss on squaring up.34 / 100An vegetable oil factory owner gets into a contract with McDonalds to sell certain quantity of vegetable oil at a fixed price for a year. Which type of contract has the factory owner entered into with the McDonalds? a) Swap b) Arbitrage c) Forward d) Future Explanation:A forward contract is a customized contract between two parties, where settlement takes place on a specific date in the future at today’s pre-agreed price.Futures is similar to forward except that it is an Exchange-trade product.35 / 100When you buy an Option, does it means you have a right to sell the underlying asset? a) Yes b) No c) Depends on whether its a Call or Put option Explanation:The right to buy the asset is called call option and the right to sell the asset is called put option.36 / 100The minimum networth required for a company for applying to become a authorised exchange of currency futures is Rs ______ crores. a) 50 b) 75 c) 100 d) 200 Explanation:This is the minimum net worth required by a company to apply for authorization to become an exchange for currency futures in India, as mandated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI). This requirement ensures that the company possesses sufficient financial strength and stability to manage the operations and risks associated with currency futures trading.37 / 100_______ best describes the total open interest which is used for the purpose of monitoring open position during the day. a) Total open interest at 12.00 b) Total open interest at the time of monitoring c) Total open interest at the end of previous day d) Maximum open interest in the previous day Explanation:Positions during the day are monitored based on the total open interest at the end of the previous day’s trade.Monitoring of position limits: Clearing corporation end of day provides Exchange wise position limit applicable to various clients and member for next day.38 / 100Which of the below option is TRUE with respect to Exchange Traded derivatives ? a) Only the contracting parties are safe guarded by the risk management policies and not all the market participants. b) Exchange traded derivatives are not regulated c) The margining system is different for different set of counter parties d) All market participants are safe guarded by the risk management policies Explanation:In exchange traded derivatives, all market participants are protected by the exchange’s risk management framework. The clearing corporation becomes the counterparty to every trade, reducing default risk. Margins, daily settlement, surveillance, and position limits safeguard all participants equally. Therefore, the statement that all market participants are safeguarded is correct.39 / 100Identify the appropriate strategy for a BULLISH view on USDINR and trade objective of zero cash outgo. a) Sell USDINR Call option b) Sell USDINR Put option c) Buy USDINR Call option d) Buy USDINR Put option Explanation:When you buy an option (either Call or Put), you have to pay a premium – so buying an option is not a zero cash outgo strategy. When you sell a Put, you have a bullish view and you receive a premium When you sell a Call, you have a bearish view and you receive a premium So when there is a bullish view and zero cash outgo strategy, one should sell PUT option.40 / 100A sub-broker has to execute a bipartite agreement between him and his client clearly specifying rights and obligations of each party – State True or False ? a) True b) False Explanation:A sub-broker should enter into a tripartite agreement with his client and with the main broker specifying the scope of rights and obligations of the broker, sub-broker and such client of the sub-broker.(Bipartite is a two party agreement and a tripartite is a agreement between three parties.)41 / 100An Indian exporter wishes to completely hedge the 10,000 GBP he is expecting to receive on 70th day from today. On the exchange the contracts available are for 30,60 and 90 maturity days. He does not to take any risk. What kind of action is he likely to take ? a) Short GBPINR on an Exchange b) Long GBPINR on an Exchange c) Long GBPINR on OTC market d) Short GBPINR on OTC market Explanation:He will short (sell) 10,000 GBPINR for 70 days future on OTC market, for eg – with a Bank etc. as 70 days maturity is not available on exchange.42 / 100A wheat flour manufacturer gets into a contract with a five star hotel chain to sell certain quantity of wheat flour at a fixed price for a year. However after a few months, the price of wheat rises much above the contracted price and the manufacturer refuses to sell to the five star hotel chain. What is the type of risk highlighted in this contract? a) Operational Risk b) Liquidity Risk c) Basis Risk d) Counter Party Risk Explanation:Counter Party Risk – The risk to each party of a contract that the counterparty will not live up to its contractual obligations.43 / 100For the same maturity, the premium on ‘In The Money’ option will be lower than the premium for ‘Out of the money’ option – State True or False. a) True b) False Explanation:In the Money options are profitable options where as Out of the Money options are loss making. So the premium on In the Money options will be higher the Out of the Money options. In the money (ITM) option: An option is said to be in the money, if on exercising it, the option buyer gets a positive cash flow. Out of the money (OTM) option: An option is said to be out of the money, if on exercising it, the option buyer gets a negative cash flow.44 / 100A client buys a EUR Put option at strike of 60 and pays a premium of INR 0.45. What would be the breakeven point for the transaction? a) 60.45 b) 59.55 c) 60.90 d) 60 Explanation:Breakeven point for a buyer of Put option = Strike Price – Premium = 60.00 – 0.45 = 59.5545 / 100As per SEBI rules, the Exchange has to offer how many minimum number of ‘OUT OF THE MONEY’ currency option contracts for each maturity? a) 1 b) 3 c) 5 d) 12 Explanation:SEBI has instructed that for every available contract – 3 out of the money (OTM) strike, 3 in the money (ITM) strike and 1 at the money (ATM) strike contracts will be available on the exchange terminal.46 / 100Mr. X buys GBPINR futures at various price points over two days. He buys 20 lots at 80.00 at 11.30 am and 15 lots at 80.25 at 1.30 pm on Day 1. On Day 2 he buys 25 lots at 80.50 at 11 am and 10 lots at 80.40 at 2 pm. On day 3 he sell 50 lots at 80.60. Calculate his Profit / loss on the squared off position using FIFO method. a) + 17860 b) + 18750 c) + 21390 d) + 23745 Explanation:FIFO means First In First Out. So lets see the buying cost of the first 50 lots [20 x 80] + [15 x 80.25] + [15 x 80.50] = 4011.25 He has squared up 50 lots The sale price of 50 lots is 80.60 = 4030 Total Profit = 4030 – 4011.25 X 1000 ( Lot size of GBPINR ) = 1875047 / 100A trader feels that INR should depreciate against the USD in the next few months. What currency future transaction will be profitable to him if his view comes true? (Assume everything else remaining the same ) a) Buy USDINR b) Sell USDINR c) Take no action Explanation:When INR depreciates against USD, the currency pair USDINR prices go up. For example if USDINR is trading at 60, a fall in INR will lead to a rise in this price to 60.50 …61 etc. So one should buy USDINR.48 / 100A trader wants to sell GBPINR one month futures contract. The current price is 81.50 and he enters a limit order to sell at 81.70. Assume that the price moves between 81 and 82 after the limit order was entered. At what price is this order likely to be executed? a) At 81.70 b) Any price between 81.70 and 82 c) At or below 81.50 d) Any price between 81 and 81.50 Explanation:Limit price: An order to buy a specified quantity of a security at or below a specified price, or an order to sell it at or above a specified price (called the limit price). This ensures that a person will never pay more for the futures contract than whatever price is set as his/her limit.49 / 100In Currency Market, if ‘T’ is the date of transaction, the T + 1 is called as _____. (With respect to Settlements) a) Tom b) Spot c) Cash Date d) None of the above Explanation:T : Trade / Cash Date T + 1 : Tom T + 2 : Spot For a currency pair for which spot date is at T+2 and if settlement happens on the trade date, the settlement price is called as “cash” rate and if happens one day after trade date, the price is called as “tom” rate.50 / 100A trader in currency markets buys a long position in EURINR futures contract at a price of 65.40 and he buys 40 lots of the same. On expiry the settlement price is announced at 65.60. How much profit (+) or loss (-) does he make? a) Profit of 8 b) Profit of 800 c) Profit of 8000 d) Loss of 800 Explanation:The trader buys at 65.40, and the settlement price is 65.60. So he makes a profit of 0.20 He has bought 40 lots, and each lot of EURINR is of 1000. So his total profit is 0.20 X 40 X 1000 = 8000.51 / 100When you short a PUT option, once the breakeven point is crossed, the losses keep increasing with the decreasing price of the underlying asset. a) Always true b) Sometimes true c) Never true d) None of the above Explanation:When you short a PUT option, your view is that the price of underlying will rise or remain steady. For a seller of Put option, the maximum profit is the premium he has received, but his losses are unlimited if the price of the underlying falls.Option Views : Long Call – Bullish Short Call – Bearish / Steady Long Put – Bearish Short Put – Bullish / Steady52 / 100Only American style currency options are traded on exchanges – State True or False ? a) True b) False Explanation:In India, all the currency options in OTC market / Exchanges are of European type. European options can be exercised by the buyer of the option only on the expiration date. American options can be exercised by the buyer of the option on or before the expiration date.53 / 100The mark-to-market gains and losses are settled in cash before the start of trading on ______ day. a) T+1 b) T+2 c) T d) On Real Time basis Explanation:Mark-to-market gains and losses in exchange traded derivatives are settled daily in cash. This settlement is completed before the start of trading on the next trading day, i.e., T+1 day. Daily MTM settlement reduces credit risk, ensures timely margin collection, and maintains the financial integrity of the derivatives market.54 / 100As per the Foreign Exchange Management Act an ‘AD Category 1’ bank can have a maximum net NPA of _____ % to become a Trading and Clearing Member of currency futures segment at a recognised stock exchange. a) 4% b) 4.8% c) 3% d) 2.5% Explanation:Authorised Dealer Category I BanksAD Category I Banks are permitted to become trading and clearing members of the currency derivatives market of recognized stock exchanges, on their own account and on behalf of their clients, subject to fulfilling the following minimum prudential requirements:i) Minimum net worth of Rs. 500 crores. ii) Minimum CRAR of 10 per cent. iii) Net NPA should not exceed 3 per cent. iv) Net profit for last 3 years.55 / 100A person sells a USD Put option at strike of 60.50 and receives a premium of INR 0.40. What would be the breakeven point for the transaction? a) 60.10 b) 60.50 c) 60.90 d) 60.30 Explanation:The breakeven point for a short put is the strike price of the option minus the premium. So 60.50 – 0.40 = 60.1056 / 100A trader is long in EURINR Call option of strike price of 75. The current spot price of EURINR is 79. What is the moneyness of this option ? a) In the Money b) Out of the Money c) At the Money d) None of the Above Explanation:A call option would be in the money, if underlying price is higher than the strike price. Similarly a put option would be in the money if underlying price is lower than the strike price.57 / 100Assume that on 1st May, USD-INR spot was at 45, premium for June maturity put option at strike of 45.5 is INR 0.54/0.55 and premium for June maturity call option at strike of 45 is INR 0.71/0.72. A client Mr. Shah executes a trade wherein he buys put at a strike of 45.5 and sells a call at a strike of 45. On expiry the RBI reference rate is 44.75. How much net profit/loss did Mr. Shah make per USD? a) Profit of INR 0.91 b) Loss of INR 0.2 c) Loss of INR 0.96 d) Profit of INR 0.15 Explanation:Mr. Shah has bought a PUT and Sold a CALL – In both the cases he has assumed that the USDINR will fall to make a profit. On expiry the USDINR has fallen as indicated by the RBI reference rate – so he is definitely into profits. In first case when he bought PUT for 0.55, he has paid a premium of 0.55. The strike price is 45.50 and RBI refernce rate is 44.75. So a profit of 0.75. Deducting the premium paid ( 0.75 – 0.55 ) the profit is 0.20 In the second case when he sold a CALL option, he has received a premium of 0.71. This will be his profit as USDINR has gone done. So the total profit is 0.20 + 0.71 = 0.9158 / 100As per SEBI rules, the currency exchanges have to offer ____ series monthly contracts and ____ quarterly maturity currency futures options contract. a) 4 , 4 b) 3 , 3 c) 3 , 4 d) 4 , 3 Explanation:Exchanges have to offer three serial monthly contracts followed by three quarterly contracts of the cycle March / June / September / December.59 / 100What is the ISO currency symbol of SWISS FRANC? a) SWF b) SSF c) SFC d) CHF Explanation:The symbol for Swiss Franc is CHF.60 / 100The intrinsic value of ‘In the money’ option and ‘At the money’ option is always greater then or equal to One – State whether True or False? a) True b) False ExplanationThe intrinsic value of an option is the difference between spot price and the strike price. For an ‘At The Money’ option, the intrinsic value is zero and for an ‘In the Money’ option, the intrinsic value is always greater than zero.61 / 100Broker Mr. A charges a brokerage of Rs 20 per lot of USDINR futures on only one leg of the transaction if its squared off the same day. Broker Mr B charges Rs 15 per lot of USDINR futures on both the legs even if its squared up on the same day. A client buys 15 lots of USDINR futures and sells of 10 lots the same day and the balance 5 lots after 4 days. What will be the brokerage charged by broker Mr A and Mr. B, respectively? a) 400 and 450 b) 350 and 375 c) 525 and 470 d) 390 and 410 Explanation:On day 1 – The client buys 15 lots and sells 10 lots the same day. So brokerage charged by broker A (who charges only on one leg) will be 15 lots X Rs 20 = Rs 300. No brokerage on sell transaction. Brokerage charged by broker B ( who charges on both legs ) will be 15 lots x Rs 15 + 10 lots X Rs 15 = Rs 375 After 4 days – The Client sells 5 lots So brokerage charged by broker A will be 5 lots X Rs 20 = Rs 100 Brokerage charged by broker B will be 5 lots X Rs 15 = Rs 75Total Brokerge : Broker A 300 + 100 = Rs 400 Broker B 375 + 75 = Rs 45062 / 100The minimum net worth for a company to be eligible for applying to become an authorized exchange for currency futures is Rs __________. a) Rs. 50 crore b) Rs. 100 crore c) Rs. 250 crore d) Rs. 500 crore Explanation:A recognized stock exchange having nationwide terminals or a new exchange recognized by SEBI may set up currency futures segment after obtaining SEBI’s approval. The exchange shall have a balance sheet networth of at least Rs. 100 crores63 / 100Which of the following is true with respect to settlement date for exchange traded currency futures? a) Two calendar days before the contract expiry b) Two business days before the contract expiry c) Last working day of the month d) Two calendar days after the contract expiry Explanation:The Settlement date is the last working day of the month (subject to holiday) at 12 noon.64 / 100The initial deposit which is required for initiating a currency future position is known as ___________. a) Mark to Market Margin b) Special Margin c) Initial Margin d) VaR Margin Explanation:The initial security deposit paid by a member is considered as his initial margin for the purpose of allowable exposure limits. Initially, every member is allowed to take exposures up to the level permissible on the basis of the initial deposit.65 / 100Which of the following best describes the guidelines for brokers with respect to issuing of contract notes for execution of orders? a) Broker should have a separate audit team which inspects the process of issuing contract notes at all his sub-brokers b) Brokers should promptly issue contract notes to his clients every week on Friday c) Brokers should promptly issue contract notes to his clients and clients of his sub brokers. d) Broker should ensure that his sub-brokers issue contract notes every week to their clients Explanation:A Broker has to issue contract notes every trading day to his clients as well as clients of his sub brokers.As per the SEBI’s Code of Conduct for Brokers – A stock-broker shall issue without delay to his client a contract note for all transactions in the format specified by the stock exchange.66 / 100In OTC currency derivative market in India, is it possible for a corporate to write an option and receive a net premium? a) Possible b) Not possible c) Possible, if he can give to the bank a copy of underlying trade transaction against which option has been written Explanation:In India’s OTC currency derivatives market, a corporate can write an option only when it has a genuine underlying foreign exchange exposure. The company must submit documentary proof of the underlying trade transaction to the bank. Naked option writing for speculative premium income is not permitted under RBI guidelines. Hence, option writing is allowed only against valid exposure.67 / 100Which of the following correctly describes the closing price of USDINR futures contract? a) The average price for last half hour trading b) The weighted average price for last half an hour trading c) The last traded price d) The average price of bid and ask price for last half an hour of trading Explanation:The closing price for a futures contract is calculated as the last half an hour weighted average price of the contract.However if a futures contract is not traded on a day or not traded during the last half hour, a ‘theoretical settlement price’ is computed as may be decided by the relevant authority.68 / 100An importer has to pay USD 500000 after two months. He buys two month currency futures at Rs 83.40. On maturity, spot rate is Rs 84.10 and futures settle at Rs 84.08. Ignoring basis risk, what is approximate effective rupee outflow? a) Rs 4,20,50,000 b) Rs 4,17,00,000 c) Rs 4,15,10,000 d) Rs 4,20,00,000 Explanation:The importer pays higher spot price in cash market but gains on long futures position. Spot purchase cost is Rs 84.10 multiplied by USD 500000. Futures gain is difference between 84.08 and 83.40 multiplied by USD 500000. Net outflow becomes approximately Rs 4,17,00,000, showing how hedging reduces exchange rate risk.69 / 100If EURUSD is 1.1240 by 1.1245 and USDINR is 83.2000 by 83.2100, the approximate offer rate for EURINR is: a) 93.43 b) 93.57 c) 93.63 d) 93.51 Explanation:Offer side cross rate uses offer of both legs because buyer of euro must buy dollars first and then euro. Therefore EURINR offer equals 1.1245 multiplied by 83.2100. This gives approximately 93.56 to 93.63 depending on rounding convention. Closest valid exam answer is 93.63.70 / 100A trader sells one USDINR futures contract at Rs 82.75. Contract size is USD 1000. Settlement price rises to Rs 83.10. What is mark to market result? a) Profit Rs 350 b) Loss Rs 350 c) Profit Rs 175 d) Loss Rs 175 Explanation:Seller of futures loses when settlement price rises above sale price. Difference is Rs 0.35 per dollar. Multiply by contract size of USD 1000 gives Rs 350 loss. Futures positions are settled daily through mark to market mechanism, reducing accumulation of unpaid obligations.71 / 100Which participant is most likely to use currency derivatives primarily for arbitrage? a) Importer with payable exposure b) Exporter with receivable exposure c) Trader exploiting price mismatch between spot and futures d) Tourist buying travel currency Explanation:Arbitragers seek risk controlled profit from temporary price inconsistencies across markets or instruments. They may simultaneously buy in one market and sell in another. Importers and exporters mainly hedge exposure, while tourists transact for consumption needs rather than structured market opportunities.72 / 100A call option on USDINR has strike Rs 83.00. Spot is Rs 84.20. Premium is Rs 0.55. Intrinsic value per USD is: a) Rs. 0.00 b) Rs. 0.55 c) Rs. 1.20 d) Rs. 1.75 Explanation:Call intrinsic value equals spot minus strike when spot exceeds strike. Here intrinsic value is Rs 84.20 minus Rs 83.00 which equals Rs 1.20. Premium includes intrinsic value plus time value. Since option is in the money, buyer has immediate exercise value.73 / 100Which statement best describes managed float exchange rate regime followed in many economies? a) Currency permanently fixed to gold b) Exchange rate purely market determined with no intervention c) Market determined with occasional central bank intervention d) Currency legally banned from trading Explanation:Managed float means exchange rate generally responds to market demand and supply, but authorities may intervene to reduce excessive volatility or disorderly moves. It differs from hard pegs and from clean float where intervention is absent or minimal. India is commonly described this way.74 / 100If one vehicle currency is used among 10 currencies, how many exchange rates are needed? a) 45 b) 20 c) 9 d) 10 Explanation:Without vehicle currency, combinations rise sharply. With one selected vehicle currency, each remaining currency is quoted against that vehicle. Therefore for ten currencies total required rates become nine only. This simplifies operations, improves liquidity concentration, and reduces information requirements.75 / 100An exporter expects USD receipts after one month and fears rupee appreciation. Suitable hedge is: a) Buy USDINR futures b) Sell USDINR futures c) Buy call on USDINR only d) Buy euro futures Explanation:Exporter will receive dollars later and convert into rupees. If rupee appreciates, USDINR may fall, reducing rupee receipts. Selling USDINR futures locks a higher conversion level and offsets adverse fall in dollar value. This is a classic receivable hedge.76 / 100Which option Greek measures sensitivity of option premium to change in volatility? a) Delta b) Theta c) Vega d) Gamma Explanation:Vega estimates how much option premium changes when implied volatility changes by one unit. Higher expected volatility usually increases option value because probability of favorable movement rises. Delta tracks spot sensitivity, theta time decay, and gamma change in delta.77 / 100In a two way quote USDINR 83.1050 by 83.1100, bank buys USD at: a) 83.1100 b) 83.1050 c) 83.1000 d) 83.1150 Explanation:In market making quotes, first number is bid and second is offer. Bid is the rate at which dealer buys base currency from customer. Since USD is base currency in USDINR pair, bank buys dollars at Rs 83.1050 and sells at Rs 83.1100.78 / 100If domestic interest rate exceeds foreign interest rate, other factors constant, futures price of foreign currency generally trades: a) At discount to spot b) At premium to spot c) Equal to zero d) Unrelated to spot Explanation:Under interest rate parity, higher domestic interest relative to foreign tends to place foreign currency futures above spot for direct quote pairs like USDINR. Carrying domestic funds has higher opportunity cost, so future delivery of foreign currency commands premium.79 / 100Which market is primarily over the counter globally? a) Interbank foreign exchange spot market b) Listed equity market only c) Commodity warehouse receipts only d) Government census market Explanation:Global foreign exchange developed as decentralized dealer network where banks and institutions transact bilaterally or through electronic platforms. Though exchange traded currency derivatives exist, spot and many forwards or swaps remain largely over the counter in structure.80 / 100A trader does the following currency futures trade – sells EURINR and Buy JPYINR for an equivalent amount. What view has he executed? a) INR weakening against EUR b) EUR weakening against JPY c) EUR strengthening against JPY d) INR strengthening against EUR Explanation:Selling EURINR – view is weakening of EUR against INR Buying JPYINR – view is strengthening of JPY against INR Taking a collective view – EUR weakening against JPY81 / 100If foreign interest rate exceeds domestic interest rate in direct quote pair, futures price generally trades: a) At discount to spot b) At premium to spot c) Always equal to strike d) Cannot relate to spot Explanation:When foreign interest rate exceeds domestic rate, carrying foreign currency has relatively lower forward premium in direct quote terms, often causing futures to trade below spot. Interest rate parity links spot, interest differentials, and forward or futures pricing.82 / 100Which instrument is standardized and exchange traded? a) Customized bilateral forward b) Customized bilateral forward c) Informal money loan d) Merchant invoice only Explanation:Currency futures are standardized regarding contract size, expiry cycle, tick size, and settlement procedures. They trade on regulated exchanges with clearing support. Forwards are usually customized privately between counterparties for specific amounts and maturities.83 / 100Buyer of USDINR call option expects: a) Dollar rise against rupee b) Dollar fall against rupee c) Zero volatility only d) Zero volatility only Explanation:Call option on USDINR gives right to buy dollars at strike price. This gains when market rises above strike. Therefore buyer generally expects dollar appreciation or seeks protection against future rise in import payment cost.84 / 100Which statement best distinguishes options from futures? a) Options impose obligation on buyer always b) Futures buyer pays only premium c) Option buyer has right but not obligation d) Futures never expire Explanation:Option buyer acquires a right to buy or sell underlying at agreed strike, not a compulsory obligation. Futures create binding obligations on both sides subject to closing out before expiry. This asymmetry explains premium payment in options.85 / 100If USDJPY is 148.50 by 148.52 and USDINR is 83.00 by 83.02, approximate offer for JPYINR per 100 JPY is: a) 55.89 b) 56.02 c) 55.53 d) 54.95 Explanation:Offer for buying yen uses USDINR offer and USDJPY bid or standard dealing convention depending route. Approximate exam method gives 100 multiplied by 83.02 divided by 148.50 which is about 55.89. Always follow market convention for quoted units.86 / 100Which entity disseminates benchmark forward premia curves in India? a) Stock brokers association only b) Financial Benchmarks India Private Limited c) Parliament secretariat d) Insurance companies council Explanation:Financial Benchmarks India Private Limited publishes important benchmark reference rates and forward premia related benchmarks based on prescribed methodologies. Such benchmarks assist valuation, treasury operations, and market transparency for participants.87 / 100A call option buyer pays premium Rs 0.35. Strike is 82.00. Expiry spot is 82.20. Net result per USD is: a) Profit Rs 0.15 b) Loss Rs 0.15 c) Profit Rs 0.35 d) No gain no loss Explanation:Intrinsic value at expiry is spot minus strike equal to Rs 0.20. Buyer paid premium Rs 0.35. Net result equals 0.20 minus 0.35, producing Rs 0.15 loss per dollar. Positive intrinsic value does not always guarantee overall profit.88 / 100Major benefit of margins in derivatives market is: a) Increase rumors b) Reduce counterparty default risk c) Fix prices permanently d) Remove all speculation forever Explanation:Margins act as performance security collected from market participants. Daily revaluation and margin collection help absorb losses promptly, reducing probability that one participant defaults and harms the broader market settlement chain.89 / 100If USDINR rises from 81.60 to 82.40, then: a) Rupee appreciated b) Dollar depreciated c) Dollar appreciated and rupee depreciated d) Both unchanged Explanation:Higher USDINR means more rupees are required to buy one dollar. Hence dollar strengthened relative to rupee, while rupee weakened relative to dollar. Currency appreciation and depreciation are always relative concepts between paired currencies.90 / 100Dealers often narrow spreads when market liquidity is high because: a) Competition and lower inventory risk increase b) Currency becomes illegal c) Volatility always zero d) Settlement stops entirely Explanation:In liquid markets dealers can hedge positions quickly and face lower risk of holding unwanted inventory. Strong competition among market makers also compresses bid offer spreads, improving pricing efficiency for customers and institutions.91 / 100Which pair is commonly classified as major currency pair? a) USDINR b) EURUSD c) INRZAR d) BRLINR Explanation:Major pairs generally include most actively traded currencies with deep liquidity, often involving US dollar and other reserve currencies. EURUSD is globally one of the most traded pairs. Emerging market combinations are not usually classified as majors.92 / 100In currency quotation USDINR, USD is: a) Quote currency b) Base currency c) Settlement margin only d) Cross currency Explanation:In pair notation first currency is base currency and second is quote currency. USDINR means one unit of US dollar priced in Indian rupees. Therefore dollar is base currency and rupee is quote currency.93 / 100If spot transaction is agreed today and settled same day, it is commonly called: a) Tom b) Forward c) Cash or ready d) Monthly settlement Explanation:Same day settlement in foreign exchange is commonly called cash or ready transaction. Tom refers to next business day settlement, while standard spot often refers to second business day settlement subject to holiday conventions.94 / 100Which strategy limits downside while retaining upside potential for exporter? a) Sell futures only b) Buy put on foreign currency receivable pair c) Borrow unrelated currency d) Buy stock index future Explanation:Exporter fearing fall in foreign currency may buy put option to secure minimum conversion level while retaining benefit if currency rises. Unlike fixed futures hedge, option preserves upside after payment of premium.95 / 100Which market participant generally provides two way quotes? a) Market maker dealer b) Tourist c) Tax officer d) Warehouse manager Explanation:Market makers continuously quote bid and offer prices, standing ready to buy and sell subject to limits. Their activity supports liquidity and price discovery. Ordinary users like tourists usually accept quotes rather than provide them.96 / 100A futures contract nearing expiry generally converges toward: a) Zero only b) Spot price c) Highest historical price d) Margin amount Explanation:As expiry approaches, time value in futures basis declines and futures price converges with spot price through arbitrage and settlement mechanics. Persistent divergence would create near riskless trading opportunities for market participants.97 / 100Which is an example of exotic pair? a) EURUSD b) USDJPY c) USDTRY d) GBPUSD Explanation:Exotic pairs usually combine a major currency with currency of an emerging or less traded economy. USDTRY pairs US dollar with Turkish lira. Major pairs such as EURUSD or USDJPY have deeper liquidity and tighter spreads.98 / 100If option delta of call is 0.60, premium may rise approximately by how much when underlying rises Rs 1, all else same? a) Rs. 0.60 b) Rs. 1.60 c) Rs. 0.06 d) Rs. 2.00 Explanation:Delta approximates first order sensitivity of option premium to small change in underlying price. Call delta 0.60 suggests premium may rise around Rs 0.60 for Rs 1 increase, assuming other variables remain constant.99 / 100Which objective is central to hedging through currency derivatives? a) Guarantee speculative gain b) Reduce uncertainty of future exchange rates c) Increase taxes automatically d) Eliminate business demand risk Explanation:Hedging aims to reduce adverse financial impact from uncertain future exchange movements. It stabilizes cash flows, budgeting, and margins, though it may sacrifice some favorable outcomes. Hedging does not guarantee profit or remove all business risks.100 / 100If futures price equals spot plus carry, the pricing principle is mainly based on: a) Political voting theory b) Interest rate parity and cost of carry c) Astrology model d) Random invoice method Explanation:Currency futures pricing commonly reflects no arbitrage relationship connecting spot rate, domestic interest rate, foreign interest rate, and time to maturity. This is often summarized through interest rate parity or cost of carry framework.Your score is 0% Restart quiz Exit